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11. What are two expected features of modern enterprise networks? (Choose two.)
2	• support for converged network traffic*
3	• support for distributed administrative control
4	• support for 90 percent reliability
5	• support for critical applications*
6	• support for limited growth
7All modern enterprise networks are expected to support critical applications, converged network traffic, diverse business needs, and provide centralized administrative control. Users expect enterprise networks to be up 99.999 percent of the time (not 90 percent.). Support for limited growth is not a usual network design criterion.
82. Which type of information is displayed by the show ip protocols command that is issued from a router command prompt?
9	• the routed protocol that is enabled and the protocol status of interfaces
10	• the configured routing protocols and the networks that the router is advertising*
11	• interfaces with line (protocol) status and I/O statistics
12	• interface information, including whether an ACL is enabled on the interface
13The show ip protocols command displays information about the routing protocols that are configured, the networks the router is advertising, and the default administrative distance. The show interfaces command displays interfaces with line (protocol) status, bandwidth, delay, reliability, encapsulation, duplex, and I/O statistics. The show ip interfaces command displays interface information, including protocol status, the IP address, whether a helper address is configured, and whether an ACL is enabled on the interface. The show protocols command displays information about the routed protocol that is enabled and the protocol status of interfaces.​
143. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?
15	• immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
16	• implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
17	• continually purchase backup equipment for the network
18	• add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network*
19One method of implementing redundancy is path redundancy, installing alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network. Redundant links in a switched network supports high availability and can be used for load balancing, reducing congestion on the network.
204. In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design? (Choose two.)
21	• distribution layer*
22	• enterprise edge
23	• access layer
24	• core layer*
25	• provider edge
265. What are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band management? (Choose two.)
27	• a connection that uses the AUX port*a connection that uses the AUX port*
28	• a connection that uses HTTP
29	• a connection that uses Telnet
30	• a connection that uses the console port*
31	• a connection that uses SSH
326. How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?
33	• by installing devices with failover capabilities
34	• by deploying a collapsed core model
35	• by organizing the network to control traffic patterns*
36	• by limiting the size of failure domains
377. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?
38
39	• S4 and PC_2
40	• PC_3 and AP_2*
41	• AP_2 and AP_1
42	• PC_3 and PC_2
43	• S1 and S4
44A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3 has a failure or experiences problems.
458. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
46	• grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
47	• providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
48	• grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
49	• providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
509. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
51	• rack unit*
52	• domain size
53	• port density
54	• module size
5510. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?
56	• They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the CPU.*
57	• They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical port.
58	• They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between switches.
59	• They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless access points through Ethernet ports.
6011. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?
61	• the use of a collapsed core design
62	• the use of the building switch block approach*
63	• the installation of redundant power supplies
64	• the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic
65	• volume
66In order to best limit the of a failure domain, routers or multilayer switches can be deployed in pairs. The failure of a single device should not cause the network to go down. Installing redundant power supplies may protect a single device from a power failure, but if that device suffers from another type of problem, a redundant device would have been a better solution. Purchasing enterprise equipment that handles large flows of traffic will not provide extra reliability in times of an outage. If a collapsed core design is used, the core and distribution are collapsed into a single device, increasing the chance of a devastating outage.
6712. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
68	• Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
69	• Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.*
70	• Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
71	• Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
72With the implementation of redundant devices and links, redundant paths will exist in the network. This may cause a Layer 2 loop, and Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to eliminate switching loops while maintaining reliability. STP is not required to combine multiple physical interfaces into a single EtherChannel interface. STP does not provide faster convergence or an expanded network that uses wired or wireless connectivity.
7313. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
74	• increased flexibility*
75	• decreased number of critical points of failure
76	• reduced costs*
77	• increased bandwidth availability
78	• increased network management options
79Wireless connectivity at the access layer provides increased flexibility, reduced costs, and the ability to grow and adapt to changing business requirements. Utilizing wireless routers and access points can provide an increase in the number of central points of failure. Wireless routers and access points will not provide an increase in bandwidth availability.
8014. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)
81	• failover capabilities*
82	• collapsed core
83	• redundant power supplies*
84	• failure domains
85	• services module
86Enterprise class equipment is designed with features such as redundant power supplies and failover capabilities. A failure domain is an area of a network that is impacted when a critical device fails. A collapsed core is a two-tier hierarchical design where the core and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer. This reduces cost and complexity but does not provide redundancy and uptime.
8715. A network technician needs to connect a PC to a Cisco network device for initial configuration. What is required to perform this device configuration?
88	• HTTP access
89	• Telnet access
90	• at least one operational network interface on the Cisco device
91	• terminal emulation client*
92Because the device needs to be initially configured, a network connection is unavailable yet on this device, hence the need for an out-of-band management method. A configuration that uses out-of-band management requires a direct connection to a console or AUX port, and a terminal emulation client.
9316. What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?
94	• the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
95	• the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
96	• the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
97	• the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them *
98One way to contain the impact of a failure on the network is to implement redundancy. One way this is accomplished is by deploying redundant distribution layer switches and dividing the access layer switch connections between the redundant distribution layer switches. This creates what is called a switch block. Failures in a switch block are contained to that block and do not bring down the whole network.
9917. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)?
100	• speed of convergencefailover capability
101	• broadcast traffic containment
102	• forwarding rate*
103	• Power over Ethernet*
104	• port density*
105The port density of a switch (the number of ports available on a single switch), forwarding rate (how much data the switch can process per second), and Power over Ethernet (the ability of the switch to deliver power to a device over the existing Ethernet cabling) are access layer switch features to be considered when designing a network. Failover capability, speed of convergence, and broadcast traffic containment are distribution layer features.
10618. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
107	• It connects multiple IP networks.*
108	• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
109	• It determines the best path to send packets.*
110	• It manages the VLAN database.
111	• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
112Routers connect multiple networks in an organization to provide interconnections among them. They perform the task by using the network portion of the destination IP address to determine the best path to send packets to their destination.
11319. What capability is provided by the use of application-specific integrated circuits in Cisco multilayer switches?
114	• aggregating physical ports into a single logical interface
115	• providing user authentication and authorization
116	• protecting data traffic in the event of a failed circuit
117	• forwarding of IP packets independent of the CPU*
118Application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs) increase the forwarding speed of a switch by allowing packets to bypass the CPU for processing.
11920. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?
120	• They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
121	• They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.*
122	• They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
123	• They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
124The Cisco Meraki cloud-managed access switches enable virtual stacking of switches. They monitor and configure thousands of switch ports over the web, without the intervention of onsite IT staff.
12521. A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?
126	• a Layer 3 switch
127	• a modular router*
128	• a PoE device
129	• another fixed configuration router
130Modular routers provide multiple slots that allow a network designer to change or increase the interfaces that exist on the router. A Layer 3 switch may increase the number of ports available on a router, but will not provide WAN connectivity. The PoE capability of a device is not related to the number of ports it has. Using another fixed configuration router will not provide the flexibility to adapt to future growth that using a modular router will provide.
13122. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
132	• to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
133	• on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
134	• on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility*
135	• on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
136Cisco Nexus Series switches are employed on data centers to promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility. They also provide secure multitenant services by adding virtualization intelligence technology to the data center network.
13723. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
138	• They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
139	• They are best used as distribution layer switches.
140	• They are modular switches.
141	• New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*
142Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches support one active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x. They are commonly used as access layer switches and they are fixed configuration switches.
14324. Refer to the exhibit. Which command was issued on a Cisco switch that resulted in the exhibited output?
144
145	• show mac-address-table
146	• show vlan brief
147	• show vlan summary
148	• show port-security address*
149The show port-security address command displays all secure MAC addresses configured on all switch interfaces. The show mac-address-table command displays all MAC addresses that the switch has learned, how those addresses were learned (dynamic/static), the port number, and the VLAN assigned to the port. The show vlan brief command displays the available VLANs and the ports assigned to each VLAN. The show vlan summary command displays the count of all configured VLANs.​
15025. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
151	• It uses a terminal emulation client.
152	• It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
153	• It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
154	• It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.*
155In-band device management is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection. Configuration using in-band management requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and to be operational, and it requires the use of Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access the device.
15626. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)
157	• a direct connection to the console port
158	• a direct connection to the auxiliary port
159	• a terminal emulation client
160	• at least one network interface that is connected and operational *
161	• Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*
162Direct connections to the console and auxiliary ports allow for out-of-band management. Terminal emulation software is not always required because in-band management can be performed using a browser.
16327. When a Cisco IOS device is being selected or upgraded, which option indicates the capabilities of the Cisco IOS device?
164	• release number
165	• platform
166	• version number
167	• feature set*
168The version number and release number refer to the overall device operating system. The platform refers to the specific model of a device. The feature set determines what a particular device is capable of.
16928. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
170	• show flash
171	• show NVRAM
172	• show startup-config*
173	• show running-config*
174	• show version
175The show startup-config command can be used to display the Cisco device configuration stored in NVRAM. The show running-config command can be used to display the currently active configuration that is stored in RAM. The show flash command displays the files (not file content) stored in the flash memory.
17629. Question as presented:
177Match the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)
178
179
180
181Answers:
182* identification –> hostname
183* security –> passwords
184* connectivity –> assignment of IP address to interface
185* access remote networks –> routing protocols
18630. What is the function of PoE pass-through?
187	• allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
188	• allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU
189	• allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch *
190	• allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2 loops
191
192Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-1-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
1931. A switch is participating in a VTP domain and configured as a VTP server. The switch needs to propagate VLAN 10 (used by the Manufacturing department) throughout the VTP domain, but does not have any directly connected hosts using that particular VLAN. Which configuration would satisfy this requirement?
194	• interface fa0/24
195switchport mode access
196switchport access vlan 10
197	• vlan 10
198name Manufacturing
199exit*
200	• vtp mode server
201vtp password Manufacturing
202	• interface g0/1
203switchport mode trunk
204switchport trunk native vlan 10
205The best practice to add a VLAN to the VLAN database with no local hosts to be in that VLAN is to configure that VLAN (vlan 10) with its name (name Manufacturing) and use the exit command to complete the configuration. Do not assign any switch interfaces to that VLAN.
2062. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?
207	• S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
208	• S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none
209	• S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
210	• S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
211	• S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate*
212To prevent DTP frames from being generated by the interface of a Cisco switch, use the S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate command. DTP is Cisco proprietary and not usable by other vendors.
2133. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?
214	• to create a switched virtual interface
215	• to create a routed port for a single network*
216	• to provide a static trunk link
217	• to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic
218When a Layer 2 interface on a multilayer switch is configured with the no switchport command, it becomes a routed port. A routed port is configured with an IP address for a specific subnet.
2194. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?
220	• The ports are placed in trunk mode.
221	• The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.
222	• The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.*
223	• The ports are disabled.
224The affected ports must be reconfigured for an active VLAN.
2255. Given the following configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
226switch(vlan)# vtp version 2
227switch(vlan)# vtp mode server
228switch(vlan)# vtp domain Cisco
229switch(vlan)# vtp password mypassword
230	• This switch can advertise its VLAN configuration to other switches in the Cisco domain only, but can receive advertisements from other domains.
231	• This switch maintains a full list of all VLANs and can create VLANs, but cannot delete or modify existing VLANs.
232	• This switch can send and receive advertisements from only the Cisco domain.*
233	• This switch can create, modify, and delete all VLANs within the Cisco domain.*
234	• The password will prevent unauthorized routers from participating in the Cisco domain.
235A switch in VTP server mode can create, modify, and delete VLANs as well as transmit that information (if the switch has the highest VTP configuration revision number) to other switches in the same VTP domain.
2366. What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?
237	• It is not assigned to a VLAN.
238	• It is commonly used as a WAN link.
239	• It supports trunking.
240	• It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
241A routed port on a Layer 3 switch is commonly used for connecting between distribution and core layer switches or between a Layer 3 switch and a router. This port does not get VLAN or trunking commands assigned to it. Instead, the port is programmed with an IP address. This is commonly used when static routing is configured on the switch or when a routing protocol is being run between the Layer 3 switch and the router or another Layer 3 switch.
2427. Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?
243	• on the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive
244	• in RAM
245	• in NVRAM
246	• in flash memory*
247Normal range VLAN configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called vlan.dat, which is located in the flash memory of the switch.
2488. How are IP addressing designs affected by VLAN implementations?
249	• Each VLAN must have a different network number.*
250	• VLANs do not use a broadcast address.
251	• VLANs do not support VLSM.
252	• Each VLAN must have a different subnet mask.
253Each VLAN requires its own network number, broadcast address, and valid IP addresses because each VLAN is a separate network. IP addressing schemes are frequently designed with the VLAN numbers as part of the design.
2549. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?
255	• Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.
256	• Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.
257	• Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.*
258	• Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.
259The main disadvantage of the multilayer switches is their higher cost. Because both routing and switching are done in hardware, multilayer switches are faster than router-on-a-stick.
26010. Refer to the exhibit. The switch does the routing for the hosts that connect to VLAN 5. If the PC accesses a web server from the Internet, at what point will a VLAN number be added to the frame?
261
262	• point E
263	• point B
264	• point D
265	• point A
266	• point C
267	• No VLAN number is added to the frame in this design.*
268The switch has an SVI configured in VLAN 5 and is routing for VLAN 5. With this design no trunking is necessary. The switch port to which the PC attaches is in VLAN 5, so no trunking is needed there. The connection between the switch and the router is a routed port on the switch, so an IP address can be assigned and no trunking is needed. The connection from the router to the Internet is a serial WAN connection that requires no trunking.
26911. Fill in the blank.
270In a Cisco switch, the extended range VLAN information is stored in the_____________file.
271Correct Answer: running configuration
272Extended range VLAN information is stored in the running configuration, unlike normal range VLANs which are stored in the vlan.dat file in flash. Extended range VLANs have other differences from normal range VLANs as well.​
27312. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)
274	• using a non-trunk link to connect switches*
275	• using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names*
276	• not using any VTP passwords on any switches
277	• configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode
278	• using non-Cisco switches*
279	• having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)
280Besides domain name, other issues to check are VTP versions, VTP password, and revision number before inserting a switch into any network where VTP is active.
28113. Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? (Choose two.)
282	• changing the switch to a VTP client
283	• rebooting the switch
284	• changing interface VLAN designations
285	• adding VLANs*
286	• changing the VTP domain name*
287Changing the VTP domain name always resets the VTP revision number to 0. This is an important step in adding switches to an existing VTP domain no matter what VTP mode the switch uses.
28814. On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?
289	• running configuration file*
290	• NVRAM
291	• startup configuration file
292	• flash
293Extended range VLANs, 1006 through 4094, are not written to the vlan.dat file but are saved in the running configuration file.
29415. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to communicate with server 1. The network administrator issues the show interfaces trunk command to begin troubleshooting. What conclusion can be made based on the output of this command?
295
296	• Interface G0/2 is not configured as a trunk.*
297	• The encapsulation on interface G0/1 is incorrect.
298	• VLAN 20 has not been created.
299	• The DTP mode is incorrectly set to dynamic auto on interface G0/1.
30016. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?
301
302	• A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router.
303	• Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN.
304	• The wrong port on the router has been used.
305	• The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode.*
306The subinterfaces could not have an IP address unless the encapsulation mode had been configured. When a duplex issue exists, communication can still occur, but it is at a slower than optimum rate.
30717. Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose two.)
308	• VTP transparent modeVTP server mode
309	• VTP domain password*
310	• VTP client mode
311	• VTP domain name*
312	• VTP revision number
313VTP updates are sent to other switches in the same domain with the same password. The configuration revision number is used to determine whether a switch keeps its existing VLAN database or updates it with the new information.
31418. What is a characteristic of VTP?
315	• Switches in VTP transparent mode revert back to VTP server mode after a reboot.
316	• Switches in VTP server mode cannot be updated by switches in VTP client mode.
317	• Switches in VTP transparent mode forward VTP advertisements.*
318	• Switches in VTP client mode store VLAN information in NVRAM.
319All switches in the same VTP domain forward advertisements to other switches.
32019. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)
321	• on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
322	• when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch*
323	• when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
324	• when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
325	• on links that should not be trunking*
326Cisco best practice recommends disabling DTP on links where trunking is not intended and when a Cisco switch is connected to a non-Cisco switch. DTP is required for dynamic trunk negotiation.
32720. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing. However, the communication between VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 fails. Based on the output of the show vlancommand, what is the cause of the problem?
328
329	• Gi1/1 and Gi1/2 are not configured as trunk mode.
330	• The IP addresses on Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 are switched by mistake.
331	• The IP addresses on Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 are not on the same network.
332	• Gi1/1 and Gi1/2 are not assigned to their respective VLANs.*
333Because two physical interfaces on the router are connected to two physical ports on a switch, this is a legacy inter-VLAN configuration. With legacy inter-VLAN, the ports on the switch that are connected to the router need to be in access mode and assigned their respective VLANs. As shown in the display, these two ports are still in VLAN 1. The IP address on the router interface can be configured as needed, as long as the devices on the same VLAN are in the same network.
33421. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server? (Note that typing no shutdown will not fix this problem.)
335Correct Answer: ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
336On the Layer 3 switch, an SVI has to be explicitly created for each VLAN. PC1 belongs to VLAN 10, which is already created on the Layer 3 switch and with an IP address assigned. The web server belongs to VLAN 20. The interface vlan 20 command was already entered on the Layer 3 switch, but with no IP address assigned to it. So the ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 command has to be entered in the interface vlan 20 interface mode.​ To test the connectivity between the PC1 and the web server, access PC1, select the Desktop tab, click on the Web Browser application and enter on the URL box “www.webserver.com”. A message “Congratulations! You’ve got it!​” will be displayed.​
33722. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?
338	• Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.
339	• Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.*
340	• Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.
341	• Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.
342Multilayer switches can perform inter-VLAN routing by the use of internal VLAN interfaces. External physical interfaces can receive traffic but are not necessary for routing functions. When routing between VLANs, any broadcast traffic that is received on a VLAN would remain on ports that are members of that VLAN. Subinterfaces are not usable for inter-VLAN routing on multilayer switches.
34323. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?
344
345	• The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.
346	• The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.
347	• There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.
348	• The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.*
349	• Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.
350In router-on-a-stick, the subinterface configuration should match the VLAN number in the encapsulation command, in this case, the command encapsulation dot1Q 10 should be used for VLAN 10. Since subinterfaces are used, there is no need to configure IP on the physical interface Gi0/0. The trunk mode is configured on the switch port that connects to the router. The subinterfaces are turned on when they are added.
35124. Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
352
353	• There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.*
354	• The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
355	• The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45.
356	• The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.
357he subinterface GigabitEthernet 0/0.30 has an IP address that does not correspond to the VLAN addressing scheme. The physical interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 does not need an IP address for the subinterfaces to function. Subinterfaces do not require the no shutdown command.
35825. Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?
359
360	• RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.*
361	• There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.
362	• The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.
363	• Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.
364The IP 192.168.2.49/27 and 192.168.3.62/27 belong to the same subnet of 192.168.3.32/27. Valid host IPv4 addresses include 192.168.3.33 to 192.168.3.62.
36526. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?
366	• show interfaces trunk
367	• show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
368	• show vlan brief
369	• show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport*
370The show interfaces switchport command displays the following information for a given port:
371Switchport
372Administrative Mode
373Operational Mode
374Administrative Trunking Encapsulation
375Operational Trunking Encapsulation
376Negotiation of Trunking
377Access Mode VLAN
378Trunking Native Mode VLAN
379Administrative Native VLAN tagging
380Voice VLAN
38127. Question as presented: Match the DTP mode with its function. (Not all options are used.)
382
383
384
385The dynamic auto mode makes the interface become a trunk interface if the neighboring interface is set to trunk or desirable mode. The dynamic desirable mode makes the interface actively attempt to convert the link to a trunk link. The trunk mode puts the interface into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the neighboring link into a trunk link. The nonegotiate mode prevents the interface from generating DTP frames.
386Older version
38728. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
388	• static default routes
389	• implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
390	• redundant links between Layer 2 switches*
391	• link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
392	• removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*
39329. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
394	• Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*
395	• The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
396	• Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
397	• A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
39830. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
399	• Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
400	• New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*
401	• CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
402	• ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
40331. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?
404	• MAC address
405	• VLAN ID*
406	• IP address
407	• port ID
40832. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
409	• port ID
410	• IP address
411	• extended system ID*
412	• MAC address *
413	• bridge priority*
414	• cost
41533. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?
416	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*
417	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
418	• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
419	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
42034. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?
421	• STP
422	• Rapid PVST+
423	• PVST+
424	• MST*
42535. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)
426	• STP*
427	• Rapid PVST+
428	• PVST+
429	• MSTP
430	• RSTP*
43136. What is an advantage of PVST+?
432	• PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
433	• PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
434	• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
435	• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*
43637. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
437	• blocking
438	• disabled
439	• forwarding *
440	• learning*
441	• listening
44238. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?
443	• lowest IP address
444	• lowest MAC address*
445	• highest IP address
446	• highest MAC address
44739. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
448	• trunk ports
449	• designated ports
450	• root ports
451	• edge ports*
45240. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?
453	• Link types are determined automatically.*
454	• Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
455	• Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
456	• Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
45741. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?
458	• listening
459	• learning
460	• forwarding*
461	• blocking
46242. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)
463	• The root bridge BID.*
464	• The role of the ports in all VLANs.*
465	• The status of native VLAN ports.
466	• The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
467	• The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
46843. What is the purpose of HSRP?
469	• It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*
470	• It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
471	• It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
472	• It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
47344. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
474	• HSRP
475	• VRRPv2*
476	• GLBP
477	• SLB
47845. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
479
480	• FHRP
481	• GLBP*
482	• HSRP
483	• VRRP
48446. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?
485
486	• 192.168.2.0
487	• 192.168.2.1
488	• 192.168.2.2
489	• 192.168.2.100*
49047. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
491The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.
49248. Fill in the blank.
493In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.
49449. What could be the effect of duplicate unicast frames arriving at a destination device due to multiple active alternative physical paths?
495	• Frame collisions increase.
496	• The number of broadcast domains increases.
497	• Application protocols malfunction.*
498	• The number of collision domains increases.
49950. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?
500
501	• Trunk1
502	• Trunk2*
503	• Trunk3
504	• Trunk4
50551. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?
506	• designated port
507	• root port*
508	• alternate
509	• disabled port
51052. Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?
511	• RSTP
512	• PVST+*
513	• MST
514	• MSTP
515	• Rapid PVST+
51653. What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?
517	• VLAN ID
518	• MAC address*
519	• extended system ID
520	• bridge priority
52154. Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.)
522	• bridge ID
523	• edge port*
524	• extended system ID
525	• PortFast*
526	• PVST+
52755. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?
528	• BPDU guard*
529	• extended system ID
530	• PortFast
531	• PVST+
53256. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?
533
534	• the IP address and the MAC address of R1
535	• the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1*
536	• the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
537	• the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2
53857. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.
539To enable Rapid PVST+ on a Cisco switch, the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command is required
54058. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
541The default hello timer value for STP BPDU frames is 2 seconds.
54259. Launch PT. Hide and Save PT
543Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
544Which switch is the root bridge?​
545
546	• Switch_1
547	• Switch_2
548	• Switch_4*
549	• Switch_3
55060. Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process.
551
552
553
554Place the options in the following order:
555The new forwarding router assumes both the IP and MAC address of the virtual router. -> Step 4 
556– not scored –
557The standby router assumes the role of the forwarding router. -> Step 3 
558The forwarding router fails. -> Step 1
559The standby router stops seeing hello messages from the forwarding router. -> Step 2
56061. Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type. (Not all options are used.)
561
562
563
564Place the options in the following order:
565Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D ==> PVST+
566Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D ==> RSTP
567IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances ==+> MSTP
568– not scored ==> MST
569Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.1w ==> Rapid PVST+
570
571Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-2-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
572
5731. Which spanning tree standard supports only one root bridge so that traffic from all VLANs flows over the same path?
574	• 802.1D*
575	• PVST+
576	• Rapid
577	• PVST
578	• MST
579MST is the Cisco implementation of MSTP, an IEEE standard protocol that provides up to 16 instances of RSTP. PVST+ provides a separate 802.1D spanning-tree instance for each VLAN that is configured in the network. 802.1D is the original STP standard defined by the IEEE and allows for only one root bridge for all VLANs. 802.1w, or RSTP, provides faster convergence but still uses only one STP instance for all VLANs.
5802. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)
581	• STP*
582	• MSTP
583	• RSTP*
584	• PVST+
585	• Rapid PVST+
586STP and RSTP assume only one IEEE 802.1D spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network irrespective of the number of VLANs, This can result in suboptimal traffic flow issues. PVST+ provides a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured. Rapid PVST+ provides a separate instance of 802.1w per VLAN, and MSTP maps multiple VLANs that have the same traffic flow requirements into the same spanning-tree instance but allows for more than one instance for dissimilar traffic flows.
5873. In which two PVST+ port states are MAC addresses learned? (Choose two.)
588	• listeningblocking
589	• forwarding*
590	• learning*
591	• disabled
592The two PVST+ port states during which MAC addresses are learned and populate the MAC address table are the learning and the forwarding states.
5934. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
594	• redundant links between Layer 2 switches*
595	• link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
596	• implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
597	• static default routes
598	• removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*
599Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is required to ensure correct network operation when designing a network with multiple interconnected Layer 2 switches or using redundant links to eliminate single points of failure between Layer 2 switches. Routing is a Layer 3 function and does not relate to STP. VLANs do reduce the number of broadcast domains but relate to Layer 3 subnets, not STP.
6005. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?
601	• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
602	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*
603	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
604	• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
605Although the spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary command will ensure a switch will have a bridge priority value lower than other bridges introduced to the network, the spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 command ensures the bridge priority takes precedence over all other priorities.
6066. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
607The spanning-tree _______ global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.
608Correct Answer: mode rapid-pvst
6097. What port type is used to interconnect switches in a switch stack?
610	• designated
611	• StackWise*
612	• root
613	• edge
614Switches configured to operate in a switch stack are connected together through StackWise ports.
6158. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
616	• prevents Layer 2 loops*
617	• prevents routing loops on a router
618	• creates smaller broadcast domains
619	• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
620	• creates smaller collision domains
621The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) creates one path through a switch network in order to prevent Layer 2 loops.
6229. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?
623	• MAC address
624	• port ID
625	• VLAN ID*
626	• IP address
627The BPDU has three fields; the bridge priority, the extended system ID, and the MAC address. The extended system ID contains 12 bits that identify the VLAN ID.
62810. Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?
629	• Trunk1
630	• Trunk2*
631	• Trunk3
632	• Trunk4
633S4 has the lowest bridge ID, thus S4 is the root bridge. Because the path cost S1-S2-S4 is lower than the path cost S1-S3-S4, path S1-S2-S4 is the preferred path for S1 to reach S4. Thus, STP will set the S1 port Fa0/1 to a blocking state, and the trunk link Trunk2 will not forward any traffic.
63411. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?
635	• STP
636	• PVST+
637	• MST*
638	• Rapid PVST+
639MST is the Cisco implementation of MSTP, an IEEE standard protocol that provides up to 16 instances of RSTP and combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance. Each instance supports PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard. STP and RSTP assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network, regardless of the number of VLANs. PVST+ provides a separate 802.1D spanning-tree instance for each VLAN that is configured in the network.
64012. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?
641	• learning
642	• forwarding*
643	• blocking
644	• listening
645PortFast allows a switch port to bypass the listening and learning states and transition immediately to the forwarding state.
64613. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
647
648	• SW1 will become the root bridge.
649	• SW2 will get a port blocked.
650	• SW4 will become the root bridge.
651	• SW2 will become the root bridge.
652	• SW3 will become the root bridge.*
653	• SW4 will get a port blocked.*
654The spanning-tree root bridge election process determines which switch becomes root bridge based first on the lowest priority number and then by lowest MAC address. Because all of the switches have the same priority value, SW3 becomes the root bridge based on lowest MAC address. To determine which ports are blocking or forwarding, first determine which ports become the root port on each switch. Then determine which port becomes the designated port for each link.
65514. What is an advantage of PVST+?
656	• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
657	• PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
658	• PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
659	• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*
660PVST+ results in optimum load balancing. However, this is accomplished by manually configuring switches to be elected as root bridges for different VLANs on the network. The root bridges are not automatically selected. Furthermore, having spanning-tree instances for each VLAN actually consumes more bandwidth and it increases the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
66115. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)
662	• The role of the ports in all VLANs.*
663	• The root bridge BID.*
664	• The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
665	• The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
666	• The status of native VLAN ports.
667The show spanning-tree command will display the status of STP for all VLANs that are defined on a switch and other information including the root bridge BID. It does not show the number of broadcast packets received on the ports. The IP address of the management VLAN interface is not related to STP and is displayed by the show running-configuration command.
66816. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?
669	• Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
670	• Link types are determined automatically.*
671	• Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
672	• Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
673When Rapid PVST+ is being implemented, link types are automatically determined but can be specified manually. Link types can be either point-to-point, shared, or edge.
67417. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?
675	• highest MAC address
676	• lowest MAC address*
677	• lowest IP address
678	• highest IP address
679Only one switch can be the root bridge for a VLAN. The root bridge is the switch with the lowest BID. The BID is determined by priority and the MAC address. If no priority is configured then all switches use the default priority and the election of the root bridge will be based on the lowest MAC address.
68018. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
681	• ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
682	• CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
683	• New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*
684	• Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
685When the network is saturated with broadcast traffic that is looping between switches, new traffic is discarded by each switch because it is unable to be processed.
68619. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which switch is the root bridge?
687	• Switch_4
688	• Switch_1
689	• Switch_3
690	• Switch_2
691Click on each PC.
692Use the Terminal application.
693Issue the command show spanning-tree.
694The switch that is the root bridge will be stated in the root bridge MAC address field.
69520. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
696	• disabledblocking
697	• listening
698	• forwarding*
699	• learning*
700Switches learn MAC addresses at the learning and forwarding port states. They receive and process BPDUs at the blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding port states.
70121. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch? 
702	• PortFast
703	• extended system ID
704	• BPDU guard*
705	• PVST+
706If switch access ports are configured as edge ports using PortFast, BPDUs should never be received on those ports. Cisco switches support a feature called BPDU guard. When it is enabled, BPDU guard will put an edge port in an error-disabled state if a BPDU is received by the port. This will prevent a Layer 2 loop occurring. PVST+ is an implementation of the Spanning Tree Protocol. The extended system ID is a mechanism of including VLAN ID information in the bridge ID (BID) for each VLAN.
70722. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
708	• Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*
709	• The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
710	• Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
711	• A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
712A Layer 2 loop occurs when broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch via a backup link. Layer 2 frames do not have a Time-to-Live (TTL) attribute. Routers forward packets at Layer 3 (the network layer) not Layer 2.
71323. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
714
715	• designated switch
716	• root bridge*
717	• enabled bridge
718	• local bridge
719	• edge switch
720Switch SW3 is the STP root as can be seen in the show spanning-tree command output.
72124. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
722	• MAC address*
723	• extended system ID*
724	• IP address
725	• cost
726	• bridge priority*
727	• port ID
728The three components that are combined to form a bridge ID are bridge priority, extended system ID, and MAC address.
72925. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
730	• edge ports*
731	• designated port
732	• strunk ports
733	• root ports
73426. Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type. (Not all options are used.)
735
736
737
738MST is the Cisco implementation of MSTP (IEEE 802.1s).
739Older Version
74027. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?
741
742	• HSRP
743	• PortFast
744	• trunking
745	• EtherChannel*
74628. What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?
747	• increase uplink speed
748	• add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
749	• aggregate ports by using EtherChannel*
750	• insert a router between the switches
75129. Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)
752	• destination MAC to destination IP
753	• destination IP to destination MAC
754	• source MAC to destination MAC *
755	• source IP to destination IP*
756	• destination MAC to source MAC
757	• destination IP to source IP
75830. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
759	• EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
760	• PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
761	• A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle. *
762	• EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
76331. What is an advantage of using LACP?
764	• increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
765	• decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
766	• allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*
767	• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
768	• decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
76932. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?
770	• It requires full duplex.
771	• It is Cisco proprietary.*
772	• It requires more physical links than LACP does.
773	• It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
774	• It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.
77533. Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)
776	• 802.3ad*
777	• PAgP*
778	• STP
779	• EtherChannel
780	• RSTP
78134. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
782	• switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
783	• switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.*
784	• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
785	• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
78635. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?
787
788	• Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
789	• Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
790	• Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.*
791	• Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
79236. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
793	• active*
794	• auto
795	• desirable
796	• passive
79737. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
798	• active
799	• auto*
800	• desirable
801	• passive
80238. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
803	• providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
804	• grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
805	• grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
806	• providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
80739. Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
808
809	• The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
810	• The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
811	• The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.
812	• The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.*
81340. Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
814	• channel-group group-identifier
815	• interface port-channel interface-identifier*
816	• interface interface-identifier
817	• interface range interface-identifier
81841. What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?
819	• Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.
820	• Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.
821	• Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*
822	• Enable each of the affected interfaces.
823	• Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.
82442. Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)
825	• port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel
826	• VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
827	• domain names on the switches
828	• speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel *
829	• duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel *
830	• port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel
83143. An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?
832	• S1-on and S2-passive
833	• S1-passive and S2-passive
834	• S1-on and S2-active
835	• S1-passive and S2-active*
83644. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)
837	• The EtherChannel bundle is working.
838	• The EtherChannel bundle is not working. *
839	• One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*
840	• Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.
841	• LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.
842	• Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.
84345. The trunk link between two 2960 switches has reached its capacity. How can this be addressed in the most economical way?
844	• Increase the speed of the ports.
845	• Decrease the size of the inter-switch collision domain by configuring additional VLANs.
846	• Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring EtherChannel.*
847	• Create additional broadcast domains by inserting a router between the switches.
84846. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?
849	• It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.
850	• It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.
851	• It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.
852	• It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two switches. *
85347. What are two advantages of using LACP? (Choose two.)
854	• increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
855	• eliminates the need for the spanning-tree protocol
856	• allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*
857	• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
858	• decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
859	• allows use of multivendor devices*
86048. Which three settings must match in order for switch ports to form an EtherChannel? (Choose three.)
861	• The switch port numbers that will be combined to form the EtherChannel must match.
862	• Non-trunk ports must belong to the same VLAN.*
863	• The SNMP community strings must be configured the same.
864	• The interfaces must be configured to the same speed. *
865	• The duplex settings of the switch ports on both sides of the physical link must match.*
866	• Port security settings on the connected physical interfaces must be configured to the same violation mode.
86749. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?
868	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
869	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active*
870	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
871	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
87250. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two assumptions can the network administrator make? (Choose two.)
873
874	• The EtherChannel bundle is working.
875	• The EtherChannel bundle is not working. *
876	• One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*
877	• Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.
878	• LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.
879	• Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.
88051. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?
881
882	• The EtherChannel is suspended.
883	• The EtherChannel is not functional.*
884	• The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.
885	• FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.
88652. Match the description to the correct command. (Not all options are used.)
887
888
889
890Place the options in the following order:
891This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the Etherchannel. -> show interfaces fa0/2 etherchannel
892– not scored –
893This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel. -> show interfaces port-channel1
894This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch. -> show etherchannel summary
895This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time since the ports were bundled. -> show etherchannel port-channel
89653. Launch PT Hide and Save PT
897
898Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)
899	• The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.
900	• The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.
901	• The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.
902	• The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*
903	• The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*
904
905Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-3-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
906
9071. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?
908
909	• The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
910	• The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
911	• The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.
912	• The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*
913The command output shows the port channel as SU, which means Layer 2 and in use; and the FastEthernet 0/10 and 0/11 interfaces are bundled in port-channel as indicated by the P flag. Configuring the EtherChannel using the channel-group 1 mode on command will cause the Protocol field in the command output to be empty.
9142. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?
915
916	• 192.168.2.0
917	• 192.168.2.1
918	• 192.168.2.2
919	• 192.168.2.100*
920The host default gateway address should be the FHRP (in this case GLBP) virtual IP address.
9213. What is the purpose of HSRP?
922	• It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*
923	• It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
924	• It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
925	• It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
926HSRP is a first hop redundancy protocol and allows hosts to use multiple gateways through the use of a single virtual router.
9274. Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
928
929	• The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.
930	• The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
931	• The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
932	• The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.*
933The guidelines for configuring an EtherChannel link are:
934Interfaces which form an EtherChannel can be physically discontiguous, and on different modules.
935Interfaces in an EtherChannel have to operate at the same speed and in the same duplex mode.
936Interfaces in the EtherChannel must be assigned to the same VLAN, or be configured as a trunk.
937Interfaces in the EtherChannel have to support the same allowed range of VLANs.
9385. What is an advantage of using LACP?
939	• increases redundancy to Layer 3 devicesdecreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
940	• allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*
941	• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
942	• decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
9436. What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two switches?
944	• The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both switches.
945	• The participating interfaces must be on the same module on a switch.
946	• The participating interfaces must be physically contiguous on a switch.
947	• The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.*
948To enable a trunking EtherChannel successfully, the range of VLANs allowed on all the interfaces must match; otherwise, the EtherChannel cannot be formed. The interfaces involved in an EtherChannel do not have to be physically contiguous, or on the same module. Because the EtherChannel is a trunking one, participating interfaces are configured as trunk mode, not access mode.
9497. A network administrator would like to ensure that router R1 is always elected the active router for an HSRP group. Which set of commands would ensure the required results?
950	• R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.250 255.255.255.0
951R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
952R1(config-if)# no shutdown
953	• R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
954R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
955R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 255
956R1(config-if)# standby 1 preempt
957R1(config-if)# no shutdown*
958	• R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
959R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
960R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 1
961R1(config-if)# no shutdown
962	• R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0
963R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1
964R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 150
965R1(config-if)# no shutdown
966In order to configure HSRP, the standby command is used. The IP address given with the standby command is the virtual IP address used by hosts as a default gateway. A priority number of 255 is the highest that can be assigned and should be configured on the router that is to be the active router.
9678. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?
968
969	• the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1
970	• the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2
971	• the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1*
972	• the IP address and the MAC address of R1
973Hosts will send an ARP request to the default gateway which is the virtual IP address. ARP replies from the HSRP routers contain the virtual MAC address. The host ARP tables will contain a mapping of the virtual IP to the virtual MAC.
9749. Fill in the blank.In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ________ router.
975Correct Answer: virtual*
976In a First Hop Redundancy Protocol like HSRP, multiple routers share a virtual MAC and virtual IP address which are presented to hosts as a single “virtual” router to use as a gateway.
97710. What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?
978	• Enable each of the affected interfaces.
979	• Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.
980	• Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*
981	• Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.
982	• Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.
983Before configuring EtherChannel, the interfaces used should be shut down so that any incomplete configuration will not cause activity on the link.
98411. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
985	• EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
986	• A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*
987	• EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
988	• PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
989Up to 16 links can be grouped in an EtherChannel by using the the PAgP or LACP protocol. EtherChannel can be configured as a Layer 2 bundle or a Layer 3 bundle. Configuring a Layer 3 bundle is beyond the scope of this course. If a trunked port is a part of the EtherChannel bundle, all ports in the bundle need to be trunk ports and the native VLAN must be the same on all of these ports. A best practice is to apply the configuration to the port channel interface. The configuration is then automatically applied to the individual ports.
99012. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)
991	• The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*
992	• The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.
993	• The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.
994	• The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.
995	• The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*
996Port-channel 1 needs to be configured as a trunk in order to carry data about two different VLANs. The channel group is set as auto and desirable. The SVI has not been configured on the switches, but this does not affect the creation of an EtherChannel. The use of straight-through cables between switches is not an issue when using a Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch.
99713. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?
998
999	• The EtherChannel is not functional.*
1000	• The EtherChannel is suspended.
1001	• FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.
1002	• The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.
100314. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
1004	• switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.*
1005	• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
1006	• switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
1007	• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
100815. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show standby command?
1009
1010	• The current priority of this router is 120.
1011	• This router is tracking two properly operating interfaces.
1012	• This router is in the HSRP down state because its tracked interfaces are down.
1013	• The router is currently forwarding packets.*
1014The output shows that the active router is local and indicates that this router is the active router and is currently forwarding packets.
101516. Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.) 
1016	• duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
1017	• port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel
1018	• VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
1019	• speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
1020	• domain names on the switches
1021	• port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel
1022Speed and duplex settings must match for all interfaces in an EtherChannel. All interfaces in the EtherChannel must be in the same VLAN if the ports are not configured as trunks. Any ports may be used to establish an EtherChannel. Domain names and port security settings are not relevant to EtherChannel.
102317. Which two protocols are used to implement EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
1024	• Link Aggregation Control Protocol*
1025	• Spanning Tree Protocol
1026	• Port Aggregation Protocol*
1027	• Cisco Discovery Protocol
1028	• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
1029Port Aggregation Protocol and Link Aggregation Control Protocol are used to implement EtherChannel. Spanning Tree and Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol are used to prevent switching loops. Cisco Discovery Protocol is Cisco-proprietary and is used to discovery information about adjacent Cisco devices such as model number and IP address.
103018. In FHRP terminology, what represents a set of routers that present the illusion of a single router to hosts?
1031	• virtual router*
1032	• forwarding router
1033	• standby router
1034	• default gateway
1035In FHRP multiple routers are configured to work together to present to hosts a single gateway router. This single gateway router is a virtual router which has a virtual IP address that is used by hosts as a default gateway.
103619. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?
1037	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable*
1038	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
1039	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
1040	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active
104120. An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?
1042	• S1-on and S2-active
1043	• S1-passive and S2-passive
1044	• S1-on and S2-passive
1045	• S1-passive and S2-active*
1046An EtherChannel link will be formed using LACP when both switches are in on mode or in active mode, or when one of them is in passive mode and the other is in active mode.
104721. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?
1048	• It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.
1049	• It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.
1050	• It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.
1051	• It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two switches.*
1052An EtherChannel is formed by combining multiple (same type) Ethernet physical links so they are seen and configured as one logical link. It provides an aggregated link between two switches. Currently each EtherChannel can consist of up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet ports.
105322. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?
1054
1055	• HSRP
1056	• EtherChannel*
1057	• trunking
1058	• PortFast
1059PortFast is used to reduce the amount of time that a port spends going through the spanning-tree algorithm, so that devices can start sending data sooner. Trunking can be implemented in conjunction with EtherChannel, but trunking alone does not aggregate switch links. HSRP is used to load-balance traffic across two different connections to Layer 3 devices for default gateway redundancy. HSRP does not aggregate links at either Layer 2 or Layer 3 as EtherChannel does.
106023. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?
1061	• It requires more physical links than LACP does.
1062	• It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.
1063	• It is Cisco proprietary.*
1064	• It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
1065	• It requires full duplex.
1066PAgP is used to automatically aggregate multiple ports into an EtherChannel bundle, but it only works between Cisco devices. LACP can be used for the same purpose between Cisco and non-Cisco devices. PAgP must have the same duplex mode at both ends and can use two ports or more. The number of ports depends on the switch platform or module. An EtherChannel aggregated link is seen as one port by the spanning-tree algorithm.
106724. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)
1068
1069	• Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.
1070	• The EtherChannel bundle is working.
1071	• One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*
1072	• LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.
1073	• The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*
1074	• Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is increased.
1075In order to form an EtherChannel, all ports should be within the same group.
107625. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
1077	• GLBP
1078	• SLB
1079	• VRRPv2*
1080	• HSRP
1081The only nonproprietary FHRP used for router redundancy listed in the options is VRRPv2. HSRP and GLBP are both Cisco proprietary FHRPs. IOS SLB is a Cisco-based solution used to load balance traffic across multiple servers.
108226. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?
1083	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
1084	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
1085	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
1086	• SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active*
1087The possible combinations to establish an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 using LACP or PAgP are as follows:
1088PAgP
1089on on
1090auto desirable
1091desirable desirable
1092LACP
1093on on
1094active active
1095passive active
1096The EtherChannel mode chosen on each side of the EtherChannel must be compatible in order to enable it.
109727. Match the description to the correct command. (Not all options are used.)
1098
1099
1100
1101Older Version
110228. Which IEEE wireless standard is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in the 2.4, 5, and 60 GHz ranges?
1103	• 802.11g
1104	• 802.11n
1105	• 802.11ac
1106	• 802.11ad*
110729. Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)
1108	• repeater
1109	• access point*
1110	• WLAN controller
1111	• Ethernet switch*
1112	• RADIUS authentication server
111330. A supervisor needs wireless access in the construction office during the construction of a new building. The construction office is in the new building and directly across the road from headquarters. What could be used to satisfy this requirement of needing a narrow area of coverage?
1114	• multiple MIMO antennas
1115	• omnidirectional
1116	• rubber duck
1117	• Yagi*
111831. A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?
1119	• beacon frame
1120	• control frame
1121	• data frame
1122	• management frame*
112332. During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?
1124	• discovery
1125	• probing
1126	• association*
1127	• encryption
1128	• authentication
112933. For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?
1130	• passive mode*
1131	• open mode
1132	• mixed mode
1133	• active mode
113434. What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?
1135	• It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission.*
1136	• It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions.
1137	• It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection.
1138	• It allows the client to change transmission channels.
113935. What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?​
1140	• It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.
1141	• Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.​*
1142	• SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.​
1143	• It is the best way to secure a wireless network.
114436. If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)
1145	• 1*
1146	• 3
1147	• 5
1148	• 6*
1149	• 8
1150	• 11*
115137. Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)
1152	• 802.11a
1153	• 802.11b *
1154	• 802.11g *
1155	• 802.11n*
1156	• 802.11ac
115738. An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
1158	• cracking
1159	• denial of service
1160	• rogue access point*
1161	• spoofing
116239. Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?
1163	• WPA
1164	• WPA2
1165	• WEP*
1166	• WPA2-Personal
116740. Which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?
1168	• ad hoc
1169	• BESS
1170	• ESS
1171	• SSID*
117241. A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?
1173	• Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.
1174	• Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.*
1175	• Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.
1176	• Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.
117742. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
1178Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called tethering​​​​​​ ​​to​​​​ enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.
117943. Fill in the blank.
1180A network administrator discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is capturing traffic and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. This type of attack is known as a man-in -the -middle attack.
118144. Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
1182Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique?​ AES*
118345. Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
1184	• FCC
1185	• IEEE
1186	• ITU-R
1187	• Wi-Fi Alliance*
118846. What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?
1189	• omnidirectional*
1190	• directional
1191	• Yagi
1192	• dish
119347. Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?
1194	• SPS
1195	• WPS
1196	• MIMO*
1197	• MITM
119848. What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?
1199	• Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.
1200	• Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.
1201	• Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.
1202	• Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or controller-based mode.*
120349. Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?
1204	• IBISS
1205	• BSS
1206	• WiFi Direct
1207	• ESS*
1208	• ad hoc WLAN
120950. Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?
1210	• beacon*
1211	• probe request
1212	• authentication
1213	• probe response
121451. Which statement defines the control frame operation between two stations?
1215	• A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that is required before sending data frames.
1216	• A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing permission for the requesting station to send a data frame.
1217	• If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined period of time, the sending station will drop the connection.
1218	• After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK frame to the sending station if no errors are found.*
121952. A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?
1220	• Upgrade the firmware on the AP.
1221	• Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
1222	• Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.*
1223	• Change to WPA2 authentication.
122453. Launch PT Hide and Save PT. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is displayed in the browser window?
1225
1226	• SSID: Home-Network
1227Message: Well done!​
1228	• SSID: Home-Network
1229Message: Good job!
1230	• SSID: Home-Net
1231Message:Congratulations! You did it!​
1232	• SSID: Home-Net
1233Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it!*
123454. Match the type of attack to its description. (Not all options are used.)
1235
1236
1237
1238Place the options in the following order: 
1239– not scored – 
1240MITM -> AN AP connected or enabled by an attacker to capture client data in transit.
1241spoofed disconnct DoS -> A series of cyclic dissasociate commands that causes all clients in the BSS to disconnect.
1242CTS flood DoS -> A repeated flood of the BSS with clear-to-send frames to a bogus client.
124355. Place the following actions in the order in which they occur in a shared key authentication process. (Not all options are used.)
1244
1245
1246
1247Place the options in the following order: 
1248– not scored – 
1249Step 2 -> The AP send a challenge text to the client.
1250Step 5 -> The AP authenticates the client.
1251Step 1 -> The client sends an authentication frame to the AP.
1252Step 3 -> The client encrypts the message.
1253– not scored – 
1254Step 4 -> The AP decypts the message.
125556. A WLAN user wants to allocate an optimal amount of bandwidth to a specific online game. What is a Linksys Smart Wi-Fi tool that will allow the user to do this?
1256	• Widgets
1257	• Speed Test
1258	• Media Prioritization*
1259	• Bandwidth Prioritization
1260
1261Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-4-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
1262
12631. Which routing protocol is designed to use areas to scale large hierarchical networks?
1264	• RIP
1265	• OSPF*
1266	• EIGRP
1267	• BGP
1268OSPF works best for a large hierarchical network, because OSPF supports a multiarea design, which provides a much better scaling capability compared with EIGRP
12692. Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network?
1270	• RIP
1271	• RIPng
1272	• OSPF*
1273	• EIGRP
1274OSPF is a link-state routing protocol and as such it uses a link-state database to construct a topology map of the network to calculate the best path to destination networks. RIP, RIPng, and EIGRP are distance vector routing protocols.
12753. After a network topology change occurs, which distance vector routing protocol can send an update message directly to a single neighboring router without unnecessarily notifying other routers?
1276	• IS-IS
1277	• RIPv1
1278	• RIPv2
1279	• EIGRP*
1280	• OSPF
1281RIPv2 and EIGRP support updating neighboring routers via the use of multicasting. EIGRP is the only distance vector protocol that can support updating a specific neighbor by using unicast. OSPF and ISIS are link state protocols.
12824. Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?
1283	• EIGRP
1284	• RIP
1285	• OSPF
1286	• BGP *
1287BGP is a protocol developed to interconnect different levels of ISPs as well as ISPs and some of their larger private clients.
12885. A network administrator is researching routing protocols for implementation in a critical network infrastructure. Which protocol uses the DUAL algorithm to provide almost instantaneous convergence during a route failover?
1289	• RIP
1290	• BGP
1291	• OSPF
1292	• EIGRP*
1293EIGRP is commonly the fastest IGP to converge because it maintains alternate routes. A switchover to an alternate route is immediate and does not involve interaction with other routers.
12946. Which routing protocol sends a routing update to neighboring routers every 30 seconds?
1295	• RIP*
1296	• BGP
1297	• OSPF
1298	• EIGRP
1299Regardless of topology changes, RIP sends a periodic update to all neighboring routers every 30 seconds.
13007. Which statement is an incorrect description of the OSPF protocol?
1301	• Multiarea OSPF helps reduce the size of the link-state database.
1302	• When compared with distance vector routing protocols, OSPF utilizes less memory and less CPU processing power.*
1303	• OSPF builds a topological map of the network.
1304	• OSPF has fast convergence.
1305Link-state protocols require more memory to create and maintain the link-state database.
13068. What happens when two link-state routers stop receiving hello packets from neighbors?
1307	• They create a default route to the adjacent router.
1308	• They continue to operate as normal and are able to exchange packets.
1309	• They consider the neighbor to be unreachable and the adjacency is broken.*
1310	• They will flood their database tables to each other.
1311Hello packets serve a keepalive function to monitor the state of an adjacent router.
13129. What are two features of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)
1313	• has an administrative distance of 100used primarily as an EGP
1314	• uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree*
1315	• automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries
1316	• calculates its metric using bandwidth*
1317Characteristics of OSPF include the following:
1318Interior gateway protocol
1319Link-state
1320Classless
1321Cost metric based on bandwidth
1322Dijkstra algorithm
1323Builds topological map
1324Event-driven updates
1325Hierarchical design
1326Requires additional memory, CPU processing, and more initial bandwidth than other protocols
132710. What is maintained within an EIGRP topology table?
1328	• the hop count to all networks
1329	• all routes received from neighbors*
1330	• the area ID of all neighbors
1331	• the state of all links on the network
1332The EIGRP topology table maintains all the routes received from neighbors, not just the best paths. DUAL can use backup routes from the topology table to provide instantaneous route failover in the EIGRP routing table.
133311. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
1334	• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
1335	• Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
1336	• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
1337	• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.*
1338Interior gateway protocols (IGPs) are used for routing within an organization having a common administration or autonomous system (AS). Exterior gateway protocols (EGPs) are used by service providers and sometimes by large companies.
133912. An OSPF enabled router is processing learned routes to select best paths to reach a destination network. What is the OSPF algorithm evaluating as the metric?
1340	• The amount of traffic and probability of failure of links.
1341	• The amount of packet delivery time and slowest bandwidth.
1342	• The number of hops along the routing path.
1343	• The cumulative bandwidth that is used along the routing path.*
1344The OSPF routing protocol uses the cumulative bandwidth as the metric for route computations.​
134513. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured RIPv2 in the given topology. Which path would a packet take to get from the LAN that is connected to R1 to the LAN that is connected to R7?
1346
1347	• R1–R3–R4–R5–R6–R7
1348	• R1–R4–R5–R6–R7
1349	• R1–R2–R6–R7*
1350	• R1–R3–R2–R6–R7
1351RIP utilizes hop count to calculate the best path from source to destination.
135214. Which two components of an LSP enable an OSPF router to determine if the LSP that is received contains newer information than what is in the current OSPF router link-state database? (Choose two.)
1353	• hellosquery
1354	• aging information*
1355	• sequence numbers*
1356	• acknowledgements
1357Information such as sequence numbers and aging information is included in an LSP to help manage the flooding process. This information can assist a router in determining if it has already received the LSP from another router or if the LSP has newer information than what is already contained in the link-state database.
135815. What are two purposes of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
1359	• discover remote networks*
1360	• provide network security
1361	• reduce network traffic
1362	• provide a default route to network hosts
1363	• select best path to destination networks*
1364The purpose of dynamic routing protocols include the following:
1365Discover remote networks
1366Maintain up-to-date routing information
1367Choose the best path to a destination network
1368Find a new best path if the current path is not available
136916. What is the first step taken by a newly configured OSPF router in the process of reaching a state of convergence?
1370	• It floods LSP packets to neighboring routers.
1371	• It builds the topological database.
1372	• It learns about directly connected links in an active state.*
1373	• It exchanges hello messages with a neighboring router.
1374Before OSPF can form a neighbor adjacency and start the Hello protocol, it detects which interfaces are in an up and active state.
137517. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?
1376
1377	• R1, R2, R5, R7
1378	• R1, R4, R6, R7
1379	• R1, R3, R5, R7*
1380	• R1, R3, R5, R6, R7
1381	• R1, R3, R6, R7
1382OSPF uses the shortest path first algorithm to select the best path to forward packets. Each path is labeled with a value for cost and this algorithm accumulates costs along each path, from source to destination. The path chosen from Net A to Net B is R1-R3-R5-R7, that is equal to 5+7+14+2=28, the shortest cost.
138318. In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence?
1384	• a measure of protocol configuration complexity
1385	• the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network
1386	• the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change*
1387	• the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media
1388Time to convergence defines how quickly the routers in the network topology share routing information and reach a state of consistent knowledge.
138919. Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)
1390	• The router has constructed an SPF tree.
1391	• The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.*
1392	• The router has established its adjacencies.*
1393	• The router has built its link-state database.
1394	• The routing table has been refreshed.
1395Once a router has established its adjacencies, it can build its link-state packets (LSPs) that contain the link-state information, including the link cost. A router can only build a link-state after it has received link-state packets from adjacent routers. It then constructs its SPF tree from the least cost routes to remote networks which are used to populate its routing table.
139620. Which two routing protocols are classified as distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
1397	• EIGRP*
1398	• RIP*
1399	• BGP
1400	• OSPF
1401	• IS-IS
1402RIP and EIGRP are classified as distance vector routing protocols, OSPF and IS-IS are classified as link-state, and BGP is classified as a path-vector routing protocol.
140321. Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) 
1404	• the router update timer expiring
1405	• the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors
1406	• a change in the topology*
1407	• the initial startup of the routing protocol process*
1408	• a link to a neighbor router has become congested
1409An LSP (link-state packet) is only sent during initial startup of the routing protocol process on a router; and whenever there is a change in the topology, including a link going down or coming up, or a neighbor adjacency being established or broken. Data traffic congestion does not directly influence routing protocol behavior. LSPs are not flooded periodically, and update timers are not relevant to LSPs.
141022. Which feature provides secure routing updates between RIPv2 neighbors?
1411	• keepalive messages
1412	• routing protocol authentication*
1413	• adjacency table
1414	• unicast updates
1415The RIPv2 routing protocol supports routing protocol authentication to secure routing table updates between neighbors.
141623. Which two protocols are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
1417	• OSPF*
1418	• EIGRP
1419	• RIP
1420	• IS-IS*
1421	• BGP
1422	• IGP
1423OSPF and IS-IS are link-state protocols. EIGRP and RIP are distance vector protocols.
142424. What is a disadvantage of deploying OSPF in a large single area routing environment?
1425	• OSPF uses a topology database of alternate routes.
1426	• OSPF uses excessive LSP flooding.*
1427	• OSPF uses a metric of bandwidth and delay.
1428	• OSPF uses multicast updates.
1429Link-state protocols have the following disadvantages:
1430Memory Requirements – Creating and maintaining the link-state database and SPF tree.
1431Processing Requirements – The SPF algorithm requires more CPU time than distance vector algorithms because link-state protocols build a complete map of the topology.
1432Bandwidth Requirements – Link-state packet flooding can adversely affect the available bandwidth on a network.
143325. Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)
1434
1435
1436
1437Link-state routing protocols have their advantages and disadvantagea. The advantages are that each router builds a topological map; there is fast convergence; and the LSPs are sent only when there is a change in topology. The disadvantages are the requirements of router and bandwidth resources because of the complexity of the link-state routing protocols.
143826. Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.) 
1439	• secret key*
1440	• OSPF message*
1441	• OSPF router ID
1442	• router hostname
1443	• interface IP address
1444Older Version
144527. A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?
1446	• Configure the network statements.
1447	• Change the interface priority.
1448	• Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*
1449	• Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
145028. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)
1451
1452	• The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*
1453	• This interface is using the default priority.
1454	• The BDR has three neighbors.
1455	• The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3
1456	• The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.*
1457	• There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*
145829. When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:
1459O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
1460What information can be gathered from this output?
1461	• This route is a propagated default route.*
1462	• The route is located two hops away.
1463	• The metric for this route is 110.
1464	• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
146530. Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
1466	• show ip ospf neighbor
1467	• show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*
1468	• show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
1469	• show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
147031. A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?
1471	• The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.
1472	• The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
1473	• The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*
1474	• The dead interval will not change from the default value.
147532. A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)
1476	• no ipv6 ospf hello-interval *
1477	• no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*
1478	• ip ospf hello-interval 10
1479	• ip ospf dead-interval 40
1480	• no ipv6 ospf cost 10
1481	• no ipv6 router ospf 10
148233. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
1483
1484	• The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*
1485	• R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
1486	• The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
1487	• The neighbor adjacency has formed.
148834. Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?
1489	• OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.*
1490	• Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
1491	• All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
1492	• Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.
149335. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
1494
1495	• The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
1496	• The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
1497	• The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*
1498	• The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
149936. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been configured on this interface?
1500
1501	• simple
1502	• null
1503	• plain text
1504	• MD5*
150537. Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?
1506	• MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.*
1507	• MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
1508	• MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
1509	• MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
151038. A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency issues in an OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)
1511	• show ip protocols
1512	• show ip ospf interface*
1513	• show ip route ospf
1514	• show ip ospf neighbor*
1515	• show running-configuration
151639. A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency issues in an OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)
1517	• show ip protocols
1518	• show ip ospf interface*
1519	• show ip route ospf
1520	• show ip ospf neighbor*
1521	• show running-configuration
152240. When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?
1523	• Exchange state
1524	• Init state
1525	• Two-Way state*
1526	• Loading state
152741. A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?
1528	• The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.*
1529	• A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
1530	• The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
1531	• A DR election has not taken place.
153242. A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)
1533	• Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive.
1534	• Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother.
1535	• Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet. *
1536	• Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.*
1537	• Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.
153843. Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
1539	• show ip protocols*
1540	• show ip ospf interface
1541	• show ip interface brief
1542	• show ip route ospf
154344. Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?
1544
1545	• The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
1546	• All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.*
1547	• The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.
1548	• The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
154945. Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
1550
1551	• The routers have the same priority.
1552	• The routers have both been elected as the DR.
1553	• The routers are configured with the same router ID.*
1554	• The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.
155546. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
1556
1557	• No router ID has been configured.*
1558	• FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
1559	• A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
1560	• The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration.
156147. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
1562
1563The command show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the propagation of a static default route from R1 to R2.
156448. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.When IPv4 and OSPFv2 are being used, the command show ip ospf neighbor is used to verify that a router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers.
156549. Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?​
1566
1567	• ​When a DR is elected all other non-DR routers become DROTHER.
1568	• ​All DROTHER routers will send LSAs to the DR and BDR to multicast 224.0.0.5.
1569	• If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to assume the role of DR.​
1570	• With an election of the DR, the number of adjacencies is reduced from 6 to 3.*
157150. What is a recommended method of authentication for OSPFv3?
1572	• MD5 authentication
1573	• IPsec to secure routing updates*
1574	• the passive-interface command
1575	• a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency
157651. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router loses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
1577	• All routes for the entire network will be present.
1578	• Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.*
1579	• Because the SPF algorithm has not completed all calculations, no routes will be in the table.
1580	• A summary route for all previously learned routes will automatically appear in the routing table until all LSPs have been received by the router.
158152. During verification or troubleshooting of the OPSFv3 configuration on a router, which three parameters are displayed by the show ipv6 ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
1582	• the hello and dead intervals*
1583	• the global unicast IPv6 address of the interface
1584	• the metric of the route that is attached to the interface
1585	• the OSPFv3 area that the interface is in *
1586	• the process ID that is assigned to the interface*
1587	• the number of interfaces in the area
158853. The PT initialization was skipped. You will not be able to view the PT activity.
1589Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
1590Which task has to be performed on Router 1 for it to establish an OSPF adjacency with Router 2?
1591	• Issue the clear ip ospf process command.
1592	• Remove the passive interface command from interface FastEthernet 0/0.
1593	• Add the network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command to the OSPF process.
1594	• Change the subnet mask of interface FastEthernet 0/0 to 255.255.255.0.*
159554. Match each OSPF state to its function. (Not all options are used.)
1596
1597
1598
1599Place the options in the following order: 
1600– not scored –
1601full state -> Routers have converged.
1602loading state -> LSRs and LSUs are used to gain additional route information.
1603ExStart state -> Master / slave relationships are negotiated.
160455. Match each OSPF election criterion to its sequential order for the OSPF DR and BDR election process. (Not all options are used.)
1605
1606
1607
1608Place the options in the following order: 
1609third -> Elect the router with the highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces.
1610second -> Elect the router with the highest manually configured router ID.
1611– not scored – 
1612first -> Elect the router with the highest interface priority
1613fourth -> Elect the router with the highest active IPv4 address on physical interfaces.
161456. A network engineer is researching dynamic routing protocols and how much time it takes for a network to converge. What does it mean for a router to achieve convergence?
1615	• The amount of time it takes a router to share information, calculate best paths, and update the routing table*
1616	• The capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media
1617	• The amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network
1618	• The capability to forward traffic between hosts on a local network
1619
1620Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-5-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
1621
16221. Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)
1623
1624	• 10.44.100.252*
1625	• 10.44.101.252
1626	• 192.168.71.0*
1627	• 192.168.51.0
1628	• 10.44.104.253
1629Feasible successors are installed in the EIGRP routing table when the successor becomes unavailable. Feasible successors are backup routes that are have a metric higher than that of successors.
16302. Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)
1631	• k5*
1632	• k6
1633	• k2*
1634	• k4*
1635	• k3
1636	• k1
1637By default, k1 and k3 are set to one and k2, k4, and k5 are set to zero during cost calculation by the EIGRP process. There is no k6 value.
16383. What information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?
1639	• only successors*
1640	• all routes known to the router
1641	• only feasible successors
1642	• both successors and feasible successors
1643	• adjacent neighbors
16444. Which configuration is necessary to ensure successful operation of EIGRP for IPv6?
1645	• The eigrp router-id command requires an IPv6 address within the router configuration mode.
1646	• The network command is required within the router configuration mode.
1647	• The no shutdown command is required within the router configuration mode.*
1648	• The router eigrp autonomous-system command is required within the router configuration mode.
1649By default, the EIGRP for IPv6 process is in a shutdown state. The EIGRP for IPv6 process must be activated by using the no shutdown command within router configuration mode.
16505. Fill in the blank.In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an ________ state will cause the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to this network.
1651Correct Answer: active
1652When a route is designated by an “A” in the EIGRP topology table, the route is in an active state. The router is actively attempting to find another path to this network.
16536. Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?
1654	• a reported distance less than 3523840*
1655	• a reported distance greater than 41024000
1656	• a feasible distance greater than 41024000
1657	• an administrative distance less than 170
1658To meet the feasibility condition, the reported distance (RD) to a network must be less than the current feasible distance to the same destination network. In this example the current feasible distance is 3523840. This means that to be a feasible successor, a route would need a reported distance less than 3523840.
16597. Fill in the Blank. Use the abbreviation.
1660EIGRP uses the protocol ______ to deliver EIGRP packets to neighbors.
1661Correct Answer: RTP*
16628. What is identified within the opcode of an EIGRP packet header?
1663	• the EIGRP sum of delays from source to destination
1664	• the EIGRP hold timer agreed upon with a neighbor
1665	• the EIGRP message type that is being sent or received from a neighbor*
1666	• the EIGRP autonomous system metrics
1667The EIGRP packet header opcode is used to identify the EIGRP packet type: update (1), query (3), reply (4), and hello (5)​.
16689. Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?
1669	• the adjacency table
1670	• the routing table
1671	• the topology table*
1672	• the neighbor table
1673EIGRP routers maintain a topology table that includes entries for every destination that the router learns from directly connected EIGRP neighbors.
167410. When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
1675	• Reliable Transport Protocol
1676	• partial updates
1677	• EIGRP authentication*
1678	• bounded updates
1679	• Diffusing Update Algorithm
1680EIGRP authentication allows a router to accept routing information only from other routers that are configured with the same password.
168111. Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?
1682	• 01-00-5E-00-00-09
1683	• 01-00-5E-00-00-10
1684	• 01-00-5E-00-00-0A*
1685	• 01-00-5E-00-00-0B
1686When an EIGRP multicast packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame, the destination MAC address is 01-00-5E-00-00-0A.
168712. What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
1688	• to describe different routing processes
1689	• to identify different application layer protocols
1690	• to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols*
1691	• to use different transport protocols for different packets
1692EIGRP is designed to route several network layer protocols by using the PDMs. For example, EIGRP can be used to route both IPv4 and IPv6, as well as other network layer protocols. There is a separate instance of PDM for different network layer protocols.
169313. If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?
1694	• 10 seconds
1695	• 15 seconds*
1696	• 20 seconds
1697	• 30 seconds
1698EIGRP uses the hold time as the maximum time it should wait for receiving a hello packet (or other EIGRP packets) from its neighbor before declaring that the neighbor is unreachable. By default the hold time is 3 times greater than the hello interval. On LAN interfaces, the default hello time is 5 seconds and the default hold time is 15 seconds.
169914. Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
1700	• shutdown
1701no shutdown
1702	• bandwidth 1500
1703	• copy running-config startup-config
1704reload
1705	• no bandwidth*
1706The command used to restore the default bandwidth on a serial interface of a Cisco router is no bandwidth. The default bandwidth on most, but not all, Cisco router serial interfaces is 1544 kb/s.
170715. Which two factors does an EIGRP router use to determine that a route to a remote network meets the feasible condition and is therefore loop-free? (Choose two.)
1708	• the feasible distance on the local router*
1709	• the reported distance on a neighbor router*
1710	• the administrative distance on the remote router
1711	• the successor route on a neighbor router
1712	• the feasible successor route on the remote router
1713The EIGRP feasible condition (FC) is met when the reported distance (RD) on a neighbor router to a network is less than the local router feasible distance (FD) to the same destination network.
171416. Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the network command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?
1715	• to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process*
1716	• to send a manual summarization
1717	• to lower the router overhead
1718	• to subnet at the time of the configuration
1719The wilcard mask in the EIGRP network command is used to define precisely which network or subnets participate in the EIGRP process. Only interfaces that have addresses in a subnet included in a network command will participate in EIGRP.
172017. Refer to the exhibit. R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the reported distance of the feasible successor route?
1721
1722	• 2340608
1723	• 2169856f
1724	• 2816*
1725	• 10512128
1726A feasible successor route is a backup route to the primary successor route, displayed as the second subentry in the command output. The reported distance of the feasible successor route for the 172.16.99.0 network is 2816.​
172718. What protocol is use by EIGRP to deliver EIGRP packets to neighbors?
1728	• UDP
1729	• TCP
1730	• RTP*
1731	• DTP
1732Because EIGRP can route non-IP protocols it cannot use, TCP or UDP for reliable EIGRP packet delivery. Instead it uses Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP).
173319. Which condition will cause DUAL to put an EIGRP route into the active state?
1734	• The successor and feasible successor are both available.
1735	• The successor is available but there is no feasible successor.
1736	• The successor is no longer available but there is a feasible successor.
1737	• The successor is no longer available and there is no feasible successor.*
1738DUAL will put an EIGRP route into the active state if the successor becomes unavailable and there is no feasible successor in the topology table. When a network enters the active state, DUAL must query neighbors for a new successor.
173920. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
1740	• EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
1741	• IGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
1742	• EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.*
1743	• EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
1744EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send update packets. Depending on the need, EIGRP may send update packets with unicast or multicast. For example, update packets are sent as a multicast when required by multiple routers, or as a unicast when required by only a single router.
174521. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?
1746	• as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
1747	• as the number of neighbors supported by this router
1748	• as the autonomous system number*
1749	• as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router
1750The router eigrp 100 command uses the number as a process-id to keep track of the running instance of the EIGRP process, as several EIGRP processes can be run at the same time. This number is called autonomous system number.
175122. Which two EIGRP packet types are sent with unreliable delivery? (Choose two.)
1752	• query
1753	• update
1754	• hello*
1755	• acknowledgment*
1756	• reply
1757The update, query, and reply EIGRP packet types require reliable delivery.
175823. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?
1759	• show running-config
1760	• show ip protocols
1761	• show interfaces*
1762	• show ip route
1763The show interfaces command is used to show the delay, in microseconds, of a specified interface. This command will also provide the default delay value or an administratively configured value. The show running-config command will only display an administratively configured value. The commands show ip route and show ip protocols will not provide the delay value of each interface.
176424. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which code is displayed on the web server?
1765	• Done
1766	• IPv6
1767	• EIGRP
1768	• Complete*
1769	• EIGRP
1770To complete the activity:
17711. Enable IPv6 routing globally on R2 using the ipv6 unicast-routing command
17722. Configure IPv6 EIGRP on the router, assign the router IP, and enable it, using the following commands:
1773ipv6 router eigrp 100
1774eigrp router-id 10.0.0.2
1775no shutdown
17763. Configure the Gi0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces with the ipv6 eigrp 100 command
1777To test your configuration:
1778On PC0, click on the Desktop tab, open the web browser, and type www.netacad.net
177925. A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
1780	• load
1781	• reliability
1782	• bandwidth*
1783	• MTU
1784	• delay*
1785Bandwidth and delay are static values that are not actually tracked by a device. Load and reliability are tracked dynamically by a device over a default period of time. MTU is not used for EIGRP metrics.
178626. Order the precedence in which an EIGRP router would choose the router ID. (Not all options are used.)
1787
1788
1789
1790EIGRP needs a router ID to uniquely identify routers in an EIGRP domain. A router will use any manually configured router ID first. If a router ID is not manually configured, the router will choose an ID based on the interface with the highest IPv4 address. Because loopback interfaces are more stable than physical interfaces, the highest IPv4 address on a loopback will be used as the router ID. If there is no loopback interface configured, then the highest IPv4 address on any physical interface will be used.
179127. Match the correct version of EIGRP with the EIGRP features. (Not all options are used.)
1792
1793
1794
1795Most of the features for EIGRP are the same for both IPv4 and IPv6. The exceptions are source and destination addresses for protocol messages. EIGRP for IPv4 uses the routable address of the exit interface as the source and the all-EIGRP-routers IPv4 multicast address as the destination. EIGRP for IPv6 uses the link-local address of the exit interface as the source and the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address for the destination. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used for OSPF and DUAL is used for EIGRP.
1796Older Version
179728. Which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?
1798	• It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
1799	• It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
1800	• It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.*
1801	• It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists of an area.
180229. What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?
1803	• It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
1804	• It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
1805	• It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
1806	• It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.*
180730. Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?
1808	• They usually have many local networks attached.
1809	• They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
1810	• They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.*
1811	• They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
181231. An ABR in a multiarea OSPF network receives LSAs from its neighbor that identify the neighbor as an ASBR with learned external networks from the Internet. Which LSA type would the ABR send to other areas to identify the ASBR, so that internal traffic that is destined for the Internet will be sent through the ASBR?
1813	• LSA type 1
1814	• LSA type 2
1815	• LSA type 3
1816	• LSA type 4*
1817	• LSA type 5
181832. Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)
1819	• Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.
1820	• Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.*
1821	• Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system.
1822	• Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries.
1823	• Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.*
182433. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?
1825
1826	• The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.*
1827	• The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
1828	• The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
1829	• This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
183034. A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
1831	• C
1832	• O
1833	• O E2
1834	• O IA*
183535. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)
1836	• Verify OSPF.
1837	• Configure OSPF.
1838	• Define the OSPF parameters.*
1839	• Gather the required parameters.*
1840	• Troubleshoot the configurations.
1841	• Define the network requirements.*
184236. A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain?
1843	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
1844	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1
1845	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1
1846	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
1847	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0*
1848	• r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
184937. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?
1850	• area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
1851	• area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
1852	• area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0*
1853	• area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
185438. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose two.)
1855	• 192.168.31.0/24
1856	• 192.168.33.0/24*
1857	• 192.168.37.0/24
1858	• 192.168.35.0/24*
1859	• 192.168.36.0/24
1860	• 192.168.38.0/24
186139. Where can interarea route summarization be performed in an OSPF network?
1862	• ASBR
1863	• DR
1864	• ABR*
1865	• any router
186640. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?
1867
1868	• The route was manually configured.
1869	• The route was learned from within the area.
1870	• The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
1871	• The route was learned from another area.*
187241. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
1873
1874	• The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.
1875	• The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.*
1876	• To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
1877	• The routing table contains two intra-area routes.
1878	• To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface.*
187942. Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?
1880	• show ip ospf database*
1881	• show ip ospf interface
1882	• show ip ospf neighbor
1883	• show ip route ospf
188443. Fill in the blank.
1885The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
188644. Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.
1887OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the designated router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks.
188845. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
1889An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.
189046. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
1891
1892The network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 command must be issued to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.
189347. Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration? 
1894	• OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.*
1895	• Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
1896	• All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
1897	• Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.
189848. What is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?
1899	• autosummarization
1900	• the use of multiple areas*
1901	• frequent SPF calculations
1902	• the election of designated routers
190349. What OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?
1904	• type 1
1905	• type 2*
1906	• type 3
1907	• type 4
190850. What type of OSPF LSA is originated by ASBR routers to advertise external routes?
1909	• type 1
1910	• type 2
1911	• type 3
1912	• type 5*
191351. What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate from an ABR?
1914	• O
1915	• O IA*
1916	• O E1
1917	• O E2
191852. Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?
1919
1920	• Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.
1921	• There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.
1922	• RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.*
1923	• The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.
192453. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to summarize the networks shown in the exhibit as part of a multiarea OSPF implementation. All addresses are using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What is the correct summarization for these eight networks?
1925
1926	• 10.0.4.0 255.255.0.0
1927	• 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0*
1928	• 10.0.4.0 255.255.248.0
1929	• 10.0.8.0 255.255.248.0
193054. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. What is the missing command on router R2 to establish an adjacency between routers R1 and R3?
1931network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 *
193255. Match each type of OSPF router to its description. (Not all options are used.)
1933
1934
1935
1936Place the options in the following order:
1937backbone router-> a router in the backbone area
1938– not scored – 
1939internal router -> a router with all its interfaces in the same area
1940Autonomous System Boundary Router -> a router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network
1941Area Border Router -> a router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas
194256. Launch PT Hide and Save PT
1943
1944Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is preventing users who are connected to router R2 from accessing resources located either within the network 192.168.1.0 or the internet?
1945	• The router R2 is not receiving any updates from either router R1 or R3.*
1946	• The default route is not redistributed correctly from the router R1 by OSPF.
1947	• The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.
1948	• The interface that is connected to the ISP is down.
1949	• The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on one of the routers.
1950
1951Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-6-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
1952
19531. In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?
1954	• when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers
1955	• when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled*
1956	• when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
1957	• when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
1958If there are discontiguous IPv4 networks, automatic summarization causes inconsistent routing because routes are summarized at classful boundaries. When there is no common subnet between EIGRP neighbors, an adjacency cannot form. Mismatching EIGRP AS numbers and the lack of an adjacency will not cause inconsistent routing, but a lack of routing overall.
19592. What is the purpose of a Null0 route in the routing table?
1960	• to prevent routing loops*
1961	• to redistribute external routes into EIGRP
1962	• to act as a gateway of last resort
1963	• to prevent the router from sending EIGRP packets
1964EIGRP for IPv4 automatically installs a Null0 summary route into the routing table when EIGRP automatic summarization is enabled and there is at least one EIGRP learned subnet. Null0 is a virtual interface that is a route to nowhere and is used to prevent routing loops for destinations that are included in a summary network but do not have a specific entry in the routing table.
19653. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?
1966
1967	• Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
1968	• Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
1969	• Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
1970	• Configure both routers with the same EIGRP autonomous system number.*
1971In EIGRP configuration, the command that starts the EIGRP process is followed by a number that is the autonomous system (AS) number, router eigrp as-number. The as-number must be the same in all routers that are in the same EIGRP routing domain. In this case R2 is configured with AS 80 and R1 is configured with AS 50.
19724. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
1973The _____________ command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending hello packets through an interface.
1974Correct Answer: passive-interface*
1975The passive-interface command prevents routing updates and hello packets from traveling through an interface.
19765. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
1977
1978	• The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.
1979	• The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.
1980	• The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.*
1981	• The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.
1982	• The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
1983According to the status message, serial 0/1/0 is receiving EIGRP packets coming from the IPv4 address 192.168.254.9. This IPv4 address is on a different subnet in contrast to the IP address configured on serial 0/1/0 of R1. The passive-interface command would have prevented any neighbor relationship from forming if the command was issued on serial 0/1/0. Changing the hello interval on one router and not another will not cause an EIGRP neighbor relationship to fail.
19846. By default, how many equal-cost routes to the same destination network will EIGRP install in the routing table?
1985	• 2
1986	• 4*
1987	• 6
1988	• 8
1989For load balancing, EIGRP will by default install up to four equal-cost paths to the same destination network in the routing table.
19907. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the problem?
1991	• EIGRP is down on R2.
1992	• R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.
1993	• EIGRP is down on R1.*
1994	• R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.
1995	• R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.
1996The IPv6 EIGRP process is down on R1 as can be seen:
1997R1# show ipv6 eigrp interfaces
1998IPv6-EIGRP interfaces for process 1
1999% EIGRP 1 is in SHUTDOWN
2000R1#
2001The administrator must issue the no shutdown command on the IPv6 router configuration mode.
20028. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be calculated on R3? (Choose two.)
2003
2004	• 172.16.0.0/16*
2005	• 172.16.3.0/24
2006	• 192.168.1.0/30
2007	• 192.168.10.0/30
2008	• 192.168.10.0/24*
2009As a result of implementing EIGRP automatic summarization, router R3 uses a classful network addressing scheme to group networks together based on their classful network mask. 192.168.10.4/30 and 192.168.10.8/30 are shortened to 192.168.10.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24 is summarized to 172.16.0.0/16. 192.168.1.0/24 is already using its classful mask and is not summarized.
20109. Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)
2011	• It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.
2012	• It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*
2013	• It reduces the frequency of routing updates.*
2014	• It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork.*
2015	• It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.
2016	• It increases the size of routing updates.
2017Automatic summarization minimizes the number of routes in the routing table. It reduces the frequency of routing updates. A disadvantage of automatic summarization is that it can create reachability problems in discontiguous networks.
201810. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
2019
2020	• The configuration supports unequal-cost load balancing.*
2021	• The configuration supports equal-cost load balancing.
2022	• Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric less than 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.*
2023	• Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric equal to 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.
2024	• The network statements require subnet masks to prevent autosummarization.
2025The configuration supports unequal-cost load balancing as shown by the variance value of 3. The default variance for EIGRP is 1. The no auto-summary command is needed to prevent autosummarization.
202611. What is the administrative distance of externally learned EIGRP routes?
2027	• 170*
2028	• 120
2029	• 110
2030	• 90
2031There are multiple administrative distances assigned to EIGRP routes. An administrative distance of 170 is used for external EIGRP routes, which could be routes learned from another routing protocol and redistributed into EIGRP.
203212. Which routing protocol supports unequal-cost load balancing on Cisco routers?
2033	• OSPF
2034	• IS-IS
2035	• RIPv2
2036	• EIGRP*
2037EIGRP is unique because of its support of unequal-cost load balancing.
203813. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)
2039	• 10.1.2.0/24*
2040	• 10.1.0.0/16
2041	• 10.1.4.0/28
2042	• 10.1.4.0/30*
2043	• 10.1.4.0/24
2044If the no auto-summary command was issued disabling the autosummarization, all subnetworks will be advertised, without summarization.
204514. Which two steps must be taken in order to send a default route to other EIGRP routers? (Choose two.)
2046	• Configure a loopback address.
2047	• Configure a default route.*
2048	• Configure a router ID.
2049	• Ensure automatic summarization is disabled.
2050	• Redistribute the default route.*
2051Any router can have a default route (quad zero route) configured. In order to propagate a default route down to other EIGRP routers, the redistribute static command is used to include the configured default route in EIGRP updates.
205215. Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
2053
2054	• The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
2055	• The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.
2056	• The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.
2057	• The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.*
2058When enabling EIGRP, the network command must be applied to the classful network address of the interface or to a subnet with the appropriate wildcard mask. The network 172.20.0.0 will only activate interfaces in that network. The wildcard mask 0.1.255.255 must be issued to support both 172.20.0.0 and 172.21.0.0 in a single network statement.
205916. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants EIGRP on Router1 to load balance traffic to network 2001:db8:11:10::/64 across two interfaces. Currently traffic is using only interface GigabitEthernet0/1. A second route, not in the routing table, is available with a metric of 264000. What value is needed in the variance command to make EIGRP put the second route into the routing table?
2060
2061	• 4
2062	• 10
2063	• 1
2064	• 11*
2065A variance of 11 is needed to load balance across the second route. The metric of the existing successor route is 25000. The metric of the second route is 264000. The first metric needs to be multiplied by 11, which is 275000, in order for the route to be put into the routing table.
206617. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?
2067
2068	• because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP*
2069	• because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1
2070	• because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
2071	• because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
2072The missing routes are the result of there not being an EIGRP adjacency between R1 and R2, R3, and R4.To establish adjacency, a router must send and receive hello packets over an interface to and from its neighbors. The interface Fa0/ of the router R1 is declared as passive, so R1 will not send hello packets over its interface Fa0/0.
207318. When a Cisco router is configured with a fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?
2074	• on a per-packet basis
2075	• on a per-interface basis
2076	• on a per-path-load basis
2077	• on a per-destination basis*
2078In Cisco IOS, when packets are fast-switched, load balancing over equal-cost paths occurs on a per-destination basis.
207919. What is the default maximum amount of bandwidth that can be used for exchanging EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-configured interface? 
2080	• 50%*
2081	• 10%
2082	• 100%
2083	• 75%
2084By default, EIGRP uses up to 50% of the configured bandwidth of an interface for EIGRP control information. On a 128 kbps link, this would mean that up to 64 kbps is used for EIGRP information.
208520. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2086The command to propagate the default route from the router Border to the rest of the EIGRP domain is Border(config-router)# ______
2087Correct Answer: redistribute static*
2088One way to propagate the default route to the rest of the EIGRP domain is to use the command redistribute static in the router eigrp (config-router)# mode.
208921. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?
2090
2091	• A default route is being learned through an external process.*
2092	• The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
2093	• A static default route has been manually configured on this router.
2094	• Summarization of routes has been manually configured.
2095Viewing the exhibit reveals that a default route is being learned through an external process on serial interface S0/0/1.
209622. Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?
2097	• show ip protocols*
2098	• show ip eigrp neighbors
2099	• show ip eigrp interfaces
2100	• show ip interface brief
2101To verify if automatic summarization is being performed on a router, issue the show ip protocols command. The show ip eigrp interfaces command shows which interfaces are enabled for EIGRP. The show ip interface brief command is used to verify that the status and protocol are both up for an interface connected to a router. The show ip eigrp neighbors command on a router verifies the establishment of EIGRP neighbor adjacencies with other routers.
210223. Assuming that EIGRP is enabled on both routers and automatic summarization is enabled, what must be configured to ensure that R1 will be able to reach the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
2103
2104	• Use the command ip address-summary to ensure that R1 recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
2105	• Use the command no auto-summary to disable automatic summarization.*
2106	• EIGRP does not support VLSM and therefore cannot be used with discontiguous networks.
2107	• EIGRP supports VLSM and will automatically recognize the 2.2.2.0 network.
2108The networks 2.1.1.0/24 and 2.2.2.0/24 are two subnets of the Class A network 2.0.0.0/8. When automatic summarization is enabled, EIGRP will summarize and advertise networks at the major network boundary. In this case, both routers will advertise the network 2.0.0.0/8, which will cause failure of connectivity.
210924. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?
2110	• on a per-packet basis.
2111	• on a per-destination basis*
2112	• on a per-interface basis
2113	• on a per-path-load basis
2114In Cisco IOS, when packets are fast-switched, load balancing over equal-cost paths occurs on a per-destination basis.
211525. Which verification command would identify the specific interfaces on a router that were configured with the passive-interface command?
2116	• show ip protocols*
2117	• show ip route eigrp
2118	• show ip eigrp neighbors
2119	• show ip interface brief
2120The show ip protocols command will identify interfaces that are configured as passive.
212126. What is the administrative distance of a static route that has been redistributed into EIGRP?
2122	• 5
2123	• 20
2124	• 90
2125	• 170*
2126Whereas internal EIGRP routes have an administrative distance of 90, redistributed routes, including redistributed static routes, have an administrative distance of 170.
212727. Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s. Which command is used on both routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?
2128	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48
2129	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100
2130	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75*
2131	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48
2132	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64
2133If two routers share a link of 64 kb/s and the administrator wants to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s, then this value corresponds to 75% of the link bandwidth. So, the command to be issued on both routers is ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75.
213428. Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?
2135
2136	• Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
2137	• Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.*
2138	• Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
2139	• Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.
2140Automatic summarization is disabled on R3, so no routes to the null0 interface have been created for networks 172.21.0.0/16 and 192168.254.0/24. If automatic summarization had been enabled on R3 neighbors, the networks that were received by R3 would have been summarized classful statements.
2141Older Version
214229. Which protocol is used by EIGRP to send hello packets?
2143	• TCP
2144	• UDP
2145	• RTP*
2146	• IP
214730. When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
2148	• bounded updates
2149	• partial updates
2150	• EIGRP authentication*
2151	• Diffusing Update Algorithm
2152	• Reliable Transport Protocol
215331. What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
2154	• to describe different routing processes
2155	• to identify different application layer protocols
2156	• to use different transport protocols for different packets
2157	• to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols*
215832. If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?
2159	• 10 seconds
2160	• 15 seconds*
2161	• 20 seconds
2162	• 30 seconds
216333. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
2164	• EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
2165	• EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
2166	• EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
2167	• EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.*
216834. Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?
2169	• 01-00-5E-00-00-09
2170	• 01-00-5E-00-00-10
2171	• 01-00-5E-00-00-0A*
2172	• 01-00-5E-00-00-0B
217335. Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the network command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?
2174	• to lower the router overhead
2175	• to send a manual summarization
2176	• to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process*
2177	• to subnet at the time of the configuration
217836. Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
2179
2180	• network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63*
2181	• network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
2182	• network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
2183	• network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
218437. Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
2185	• a summary route*
2186	• an internal route
2187	• an external route that is redistributed from RIP
2188	• an external route that is redistributed from OSPF
218938. Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
2190	• only in the routing table
2191	• only in the neighbor table
2192	• in the routing table and the topology table*
2193	• in the routing table and the neighbor table
219439. Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?
2195	• the routing table
2196	• the neighbor table
2197	• the topology table*
2198	• the adjacency table
219940. How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
2200	• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
2201	• by comparing known routes to information received in updates
2202	• by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers*
2203	• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
2204	• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
220541. Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
2206	• bandwidth 1500
2207	• shutdown
2208	• no shutdown
2209	• copy running-config startup-config
2210	• reload
2211	• no bandwidth*
221242. Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
2213	• show ip route
2214	• show interfaces*
2215	• show ip protocols
2216	• show ip interface brief
221743. A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
2218	• bandwidth *
2219	• load
2220	• reliability
2221	• delay*
2222	• MTU
222344. Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)
2224	• k1
2225	• k2*
2226	• k3
2227	• k4 *
2228	• k5*
2229	• k6
223045. Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?
2231
2232	• a reported distance less than 3523840*
2233	• a reported distance greater than 41024000
2234	• a feasible distance greater than 41024000
2235	• an administrative distance less than 170
223646. What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
2237	• The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
2238	• The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
2239	• The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
2240	• There is no activity on the route to that network.
2241	• The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.*
224247. Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)
2243
2244	• 192.168.71.0*
2245	• 192.168.51.0
2246	• 10.44.100.252*
2247	• 10.44.104.253
2248	• 10.44.101.252
224948. Fill in the blank.
2250In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an active state will cause the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to this network.
225149. Which two EIGRP packet types are sent with unreliable delivery? (Choose two.)
2252	• update
2253	• query
2254	• hello*
2255	• reply
2256	• acknowledgment*
225750. What is identified within the opcode of an EIGRP packet header?
2258	• the EIGRP message type that is being sent or received from a neighbor*
2259	• the EIGRP autonomous system metrics
2260	• the EIGRP hold timer agreed upon with a neighbor
2261	• the EIGRP sum of delays from source to destination
226251. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?
2263	• as the autonomous system number *
2264	• as the number of neighbors supported by this router
2265	• as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
2266	• as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router
226752. What information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?
2268	• both successors and feasible successors
2269	• only feasible successors
2270	• adjacent neighbors
2271	• all routes known to the router
2272	• only successors*
227353. Refer to the exhibit. R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the reported distance of the feasible successor route?
2274
2275	• 2340608
2276	• 2169856
2277	• 10512128
2278	• 2816*
227954. What is the multicast address used by an EIGRP-enabled router operating with IPv6?
2280	• FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
2281	• FF02::A*
2282	• FF02::B
2283	• FF02::1
228455. Which configuration is necessary to ensure successful operation of EIGRP for IPv6?
2285	• The eigrp router-id command requires an IPv6 address within the router configuration mode.​
2286	• The network command is required within the router configuration mode.​
2287	• The no shutdown command is required within the router configuration mode.​*
2288	• The router eigrp autonomous-system command is required within the router configuration mode.
228956. Fill in the Blank. Use the abbreviation.
2290EIGRP uses the RTP protocol to deliver EIGRP packets to neighbors.​
229157. Order the precedence in which an EIGRP router would choose the router ID. (Not all options are used.)
2292
2293
2294
2295Place the options in the following order:
2296first -> eigrp router-id command
2297– not scored – 
2298third -> highest IPv4 address on active physical interfaces
2299second -> highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces
230058. Match the correct version of EIGRP with the EIGRP features. (Not all options are used.)
2301
2302
2303
2304Place the options in the following order: 
2305– not scored – 
2306EIGRP for IPv4 only -> source address for EIGRP messages is a routable address
2307both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 -> uses a 32-bit router ID
2308EIGRP for IPv6 only -> source address for EIGRP messages is a link-local address 
230959. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT
2310
2311Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which code is displayed on the web server?
2312	• Done
2313	• Complete*
2314	• EIGRP
2315	• IPv6EIGRP
231660. Refer to the exhibit. R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the reported distance of the feasible successor route?
2317
2318	• 10512128
2319	• 2169856
2320	• 2340608
2321	• 2816*
232261. Which two EIGRP packet types are sent with reliable delivery? (Choose two.)
2323	• update query
2324	• hello*
2325	• acknowledgment*
2326	• reply
2327
2328Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-7-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
2329
23301. By default, what is the OSPF cost for any link with a bandwidth of 100 Mb/s or greater?
2331	• 100
2332	• 100000000
2333	• 1*
2334	• 10000
2335OSPF uses the formula: Cost = 100,000,000 / bandwidth. Because OSPF will only use integers as cost, any bandwidth of 100 Mb/s or greater will all equal a cost of 1.
23362. Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?
2337	• show ipv6 interface brief
2338	• show ipv6 ospf neighbor*
2339	• show ipv6 route ospf
2340	• show running-configuration
2341The show ipv6 ospf neighbor command will verify neighbor adjacencies for OSPFv3 routers. The other options do not provide neighbor information.
23423. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?
2343	• adjacency database
2344	• link-state database*
2345	• SPF tree
2346	• routing table
2347Each OSPF router views the network differently as the root of a unique SPF tree. Each router builds adjacencies based on its own position in the topology. Each routing table in the area is developed individually through the application of the SPF algorithm. The link-state database for an area, however, must reflect the same information for all routers.
23484. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?
2349	• DBD
2350	• LSR
2351	• hello
2352	• LSAck
2353	• LSU*
2354Link-state update (LSU) packets contain different types of link-state advertisements (LSAs). The LSUs are used to reply to link-state requests (LSRs) and to announce new information.
23555. Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)
2356	• FF02::AFF02::1:2
2357	• 2001:db8:cafe::1
2358	• FE80::1*
2359	• FF02::6*
2360	• FF02::5*
2361OSPFv6 messages can be sent to either the OSPF router multicast FF02::5, the OSPF DR/BDR multicast FF02::6, or the link-local address.
23626. Fill in the blank.
2363OSPF uses _______ as a metric.Correct Answer: cost*
2364The OSPF metric is cost. The lowest cost path to a remote destination is the preferred path and is installed in the routing table.
23657. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)
2366	• to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks
2367	• to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
2368	• to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain*
2369	• to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router*
2370	• to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full
2371OSPF router ID does not contribute to SPF algorithm calculations, nor does it facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full. Although the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when router adjacencies are being established, it has no bearing on the actual convergence process.
23728. A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?
2373	• The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
2374	• The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.
2375	• The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
2376	• The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.*
2377The basic command to implement OSPFv3 on a router uses the same process-id parameter as OSPFv2 to assign a locally-significant number to the OSPF process. OSPF does not use autonomous system numbers. Following the assignment of the process ID, a prompt will direct the user to manually assign a router ID. After the router ID is assigned, the reference bandwidth can be set.
23789. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
2379	• They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
2380	• They request more information about their databases.
2381	• They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*
2382	• They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
2383During the exchange of hello packets, OSPF routers negotiate the election process and set the OSPF parameters. DBD packets are exchanged after that step has been completed. DBD packets contain abbreviated lists of link-state information. After that information has been exchanged, OSPF routers exchange Type 3 LSR packets to request further information.
238410. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task. What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com?
2385	• Completion!*
2386	• Success!
2387	• Converged!
2388	• Finished!
2389The correct configuration on R1 is:
2390router ospf 10
2391network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
2392network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
2393The correct configuration on R2 is:
2394router ospf 10
2395network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
2396network 10.0.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
2397network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
239811. What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)
2399	• a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used
2400	• one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
2401	• use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
2402	• mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers*
2403	• mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces*
2404There may be several reasons why two routers running OSPF will fail to form an OSPF adjacency, including these:
2405The subnet masks do not match, causing the routers to be on separate networks.
2406OSPF Hello or Dead Timers do not match.
2407OSPF network types do not match.
2408There is a missing or incorrect OSPF network command.
2409Mismatched IOS versions, the use of private IP addresses, and different types of interface ports used on a switch are not causes for an OSPF adjacency failing to form between two routers.
241012. What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?
2411	• the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process
2412	• an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process*
2413	• the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process
2414	• the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process
2415Since serial interfaces do not have MAC addresses, OSPFv3 automatically assigns a link-local address to them derived from the first available MAC address from the pool of Ethernet interface addresses on the router. A FE80::/10 prefix is added. The router then applies the EUI-64 process to the MAC address by inserting FFFE into the middle of the existing 48-bit address and flipping the seventh bit.
241613. Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?
2417	• ipv6 ospf 20 area 20
2418	• ipv6 ospf 0 area 0
2419	• ipv6 ospf 0 area 20
2420	• ipv6 ospf 20 area 0*
2421The command to enable an OSPFv3 process on a router interface is ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id. In the case the process ID is 20 and the area ID is 0.
242214. Fill in the blank.The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on _________ networks, such as Ethernet networks.
2423Correct Answer: multiaccess*
2424There is no need to have a DR/BDR election on a point-to-point link.
242515. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?
2426	• show ip route ospf
2427	• show ipv6 route
2428	• show ipv6 route ospf*
2429	• show ip route
2430The show ipv6 route ospf command gives specific information that is related to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table. The show ipv6 route command will show the entire routing table. The show ip route and show ip route ospf commands are used with OSPFv2.
243116. Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving updates from, and the default administrative distance?
2432	• show ip ospf neighbor
2433	• show ip ospf
2434	• show ip protocols*
2435	• show ip ospf interface
2436The show ip ospf neighbor command is used to verify that the router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers. The show ip ospf command displays the OSPF process ID and router ID, the OSPF area information, as well as the last time the SPF algorithm was calculated. The show ip ospf interface command provides detailed information about every OSPF-enabled interface.
243717. What is the metric that is used by OSPF?
2438	• cost*
2439	• distance
2440	• hop count
2441	• delay
2442OSPF uses cost as a metric. OSPF calculates cost inversely to the bandwidth of an interface. The higher the interface bandwidth, the lower the cost of the interface.
244318. What function is performed by the OSPF designated router?
2444	• summarizing routes between areas
2445	• dissemination of LSAs*
2446	• maintaining the link-state database
2447	• redistribution of external routes into OSPF
2448OSPF designated routers are elected on multiaccess networks to disseminate LSAs to other OSPF routers. By having a single router disseminate LSAs, the exchanging of LSAs is more efficient.
244919. What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table? C
2450	• adjacency database*
2451	• link-state database
2452	• forwarding database
2453	• routing table
245420. When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID?
2455	• clear ipv6 ospf process
2456	• interface serial 0/0/1
2457	• ipv6 router ospf 10*
2458	• ipv6 ospf 10 area 0
2459The OSPFv3 router ID is configured in the IPv6 router configuration mode. The clear ipv6 ospf process privileged EXEC command forces OSPF on the router to renegotiate neighbor adjacencies. The interface serial 0/0/1 command causes the router to enter interface configuration mode where OSPFv3 is enabled by issuing the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id command.
246021. What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID?
2461	• the highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement
2462	• the highest active interface IP that is configured on the router
2463	• any IP address that is configured using the router-id command*
2464	• a loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router
2465The first preference for an OSPF router ID is an explicitly configured 32-bit address. This address is not included in the routing table and is not defined by the network command. If a router ID that is configured through the router-id command is not available, OSPF routers next use the highest IP address available on a loopback interface, as loopbacks used as router IDs are also not routable addresses. Lacking either of these alternatives, an OSPF router will use the highest IP address from its active physical interfaces.
246622. Match the OSPF state with the order in which it occurs. (Not all options are used.)
2467
2468
2469
2470The active and passive states are used by EIGRP.
247123. Match each OSPF packet type to how it is used by a router. (Not all options are used.)
2472
2473
2474
247524. By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSPF-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used.)
2476
2477
2478
2479Cisco routers determine the OSPF router ID based on the preferential order of configured router ID, IPv4 addresses of loopback interfaces, and IPv4 addresses of active physical interfaces.
248025. Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.)
2481
2482
2483
2484Older Version
248526. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)
2486
2487	• 192.168.1.0/30
2488	• 192.168.10.0/30
2489	• 192.168.10.0/24*
2490	• 172.16.3.0/24
2491	• 172.16.0.0/16*
249227. Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?
2493
2494	• Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
2495	• Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.*
2496	• Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
2497	• Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.
249828. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?
2499
2500	• A static default route has been manually configured on this router.
2501	• Summarization of routes has been manually configured.
2502	• A default route is being learned through an external process.*
2503	• The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
250429. Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)
2505	• It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.
2506	• It increases the size of routing updates.
2507	• It reduces the frequency of routing updates. *
2508	• It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork.*
2509	• It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.
2510	• It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*
251130. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)
2512
2513	• 10.1.0.0/16
2514	• 10.1.2.0/24*
2515	• 10.1.4.0/24
2516	• 10.1.4.0/28
2517	• 10.1.4.0/30*
251831. Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?
2519	• 2001:DB8:8000::/34*
2520	• 2001:DB8:8000::/36
2521	• 2001:DB8:8000::/47
2522	• 2001:DB8:8000::/48
252332. What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?
2524	• requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates
2525	• reduces total number of routes in routing tables*
2526	• cannot include supernet routes
2527	• has to be configured globally on the router
252833. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?
2529
2530	• A static default route was configured on this router.*
2531	• A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.
2532	• The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.
2533	• The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.
253434. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
2535
2536	• The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
2537	• There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.
2538	• The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.
2539	• The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.*
2540	• The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.
254135. In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?
2542	• global configuration mode
2543	• interface configuration mode
2544	• privileged mode
2545	• router configuration mode*
254636. Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s. Which command is used on both routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?
2547	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48
2548	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48
2549	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64
2550	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75*
2551	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100
255237. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)
2553
2554	• serial 0/0/1 of R2
2555	• serial 0/1/0 of R2*
2556	• gig 0/0 of R3
2557	• serial 0/0/1 of R3*
2558	• serial 0/1/0 of R4
255938. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured EIGRP authentication between routers R1 and R2. After the routing tables are reviewed, it is noted that neither router is receiving EIGRP updates. What is a possible cause for this failure?
2560	• The same key chain name must be used on each router.
2561	• The same number of key strings must be used on each router.
2562	• The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.
2563	• The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the interface configurations of each router.*
2564	• The authentication configuration is correct, issue the show ip eigrp neighbors command to troubleshoot the issue.
256539. Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?
2566	• an authentication mismatch
2567	• an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks*
2568	• automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers
2569	• a process ID mismatch
257040. Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
2571
2572	• The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.
2573	• The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
2574	• The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.*
2575	• The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.
257641. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
2577
2578	• The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
2579	• The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.
2580	• The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.
2581	• The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.*
2582	• The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.
258342. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?
2584
2585	• Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
2586	• Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
2587	• Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
2588	• Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.*
258943. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2590The passive-interface command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending hello packets through an interface.
259144. What is the purpose of a Null0 route in the routing table?
2592	• to redistribute external routes into EIGRP
2593	• to prevent routing loops*
2594	• to act as a gateway of last resort
2595	• to prevent the router from sending EIGRP packets
259645. Which administrative distance is used to advertise routes learned from other protocols that are redistributed into EIGRP?
2597	• 170*
2598	• 90
2599	• 115
2600	• 5
260146. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
2602
2603	• The configuration supports equal-cost load balancing.
2604	• The configuration supports unequal-cost load balancing. *
2605	• Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric less than 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.*
2606	• Any EIGRP-learned route with a metric equal to 3 times the successor metric will be installed in the local routing table.
2607	• The network statements require subnet masks to prevent autosummarization.
260847. Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?
2609	• ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8*
2610	• maximum-paths 8
2611	• variance 8
2612	• traffic-share balanced
261348. By default, how many equal-cost routes to the same destination network will EIGRP install in the routing table?
2614	• 2
2615	• 4*
2616	• 6
2617	• 8
261849. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?
2619
2620	• The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
2621	• A username and password must be configured.
2622	• The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.*
2623	• The CiscoVille router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.
262450. What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)
2625	• EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm. *
2626	• EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key.*
2627	• EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name.
2628	• EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between routers.
2629	• EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are protected; whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and its updates are unprotected.
263051. Which EIGRP parameter must match between all routers forming an EIGRP adjacency?
2631	• hello timer
2632	• variance
2633	• autonomous system number*
2634	• hold timer
2635	• administrative distance
263652. Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?
2637	• show ip eigrp interfaces
2638	• show ip protocols*
2639	• show ip interface brief
2640	• show ip eigrp neighbors
264153. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2642What is the command that should be issued on a router to verify that EIGRP adjacencies were formed?​ show ip eigrp neighbors
264354. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
2644R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the problem?​
2645	• EIGRP is down on R1.*
2646	• EIGRP is down on R2.
2647	• R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.
2648	• R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.
2649	• R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.
265055. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?
2651
2652	• because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
2653	• because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
2654	• because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP*
2655	• because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1
265656. In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?
2657	• when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
2658	• when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS​ numbers
2659	• when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
2660	• when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled*
266157. Which OSPF data structure is identical on all OSPF routers that share the same area? 
2662	• forwarding database
2663	• routing table
2664	• link-state database* 
2665	• adjacency database
266658. Which command will selectively display IPv6 routes that are learned from a remote network? 
2667	• show ip route
2668	• show ipv6 route ospf* 
2669	• show ip route ospf
2670	• show ipv6 route
2671
2672Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-8-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
2673
26741. What are two reasons for creating an OSPF networkWhat information is contained within an OSPF type 4 LSA with multiple areas? (Choose two.)
2675	• to simplify configuration
2676	• to reduce SPF calculations*
2677	• to reduce use of memory and processor resources*
2678	• to provide areas in the network for routers that are not running OSPF
2679	• to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet
2680If a router is not running OSPF, it is not configurable with an OSPF area. OSPF areas have no direct relationship with the Internet. Routers that run OSPF can connect to the Internet, but multiple OSPF areas are not required for this purpose. OSPF areas help to decrease the demand for router memory and processing power by limiting OSPF protocol traffic, keeping link-state databases small, and requiring fewer SPF recalculations. Multiarea OSPF requires additional steps to configure and therefore does not simplify the configuration process.
26812. What is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?
2682	• requent SPF calculations
2683	• autosummarization
2684	• the election of designated routers
2685	• the use of multiple areas*
2686OSPF supports the concept of areas to prevent larger routing tables, excessive SPF calculations, and large LSDBs. Only routers within an area share link-state information. This allows OSPF to scale in a hierarchical fashion with all areas that connect to a backbone area.
26873. A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
2688	• C
2689	• O
2690	• O IA*
2691	• O E2
2692In a routing table, a route with the code O IA indicates a network that is learned from another area and received by the ABR as an external LSA. The ABR has flooded the route into its area so that internal routers may add it to their databases. Label C would indicate a network that is directly connected to an interface on the router. Label O would indicate a network that is advertised by another router in the same area. Label O E2 would indicate an external network (non-OSPF network) that is advertised by an ASBR.
26934. Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)
2694	• Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.​
2695	• Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries​.
2696	• Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system​.
2697	• Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.*
2698	• Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.​*
2699Type 4 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries. Type 4 LSAs are generated by an ABR to inform other areas of next-hop information for the ASBR. Type 1 LSAs are known as router link entries. Type 3 LSAs can be generated without requiring a full SPF calculation. Type 3 LSAs are used to carry routes between OSPF areas.
27005. Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?
2701	• They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
2702	• They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
2703	• They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.*
2704	• They usually have many local networks attached.
2705ABRs and ASBRs need to perform any summarization or redistribution among multiple areas, and thus demand more router resources than a regular router in an OSPF area.
27066. What type of OSPF LSA is originated by ASBR routers to advertise external routes?
2707	• type 5*
2708	• type 2
2709	• type 3
2710	• type 1
2711OSPF has many different LSA types.
2712type 1 – contains a list of directly connected interfaces
2713type 2 – only exists for multiaccess networks and includes DR router ID
2714type 3 – used by ABRs to advertise networks from other areas
2715type 4 – generated by ABRs to identify an ASBR and provides a route to it
2716type 5 – originated by ASBRs to advertise external routes
27177. What OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?
2718	• type 3
2719	• type 2*
2720	• type 1
2721	• type 4
2722OSPF has many different LSA types.
2723type 1 – contains a list of directly connected interfaces
2724type 2 – only exists for multiaccess networks and includes DR router ID
2725type 3 – used by ABRs to advertise networks from other areas
2726type 4 – generated by ABRs to identify an ASBR and provide a route to it
27278. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
2728
2729	• To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface​.*
2730	• The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.
2731	• To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
2732	• The routing table contains two intra-area routes.
2733	• The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.*
2734The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a local interface, not a loopback interface. There are two routes that are O IA, meaning that these are interarea routes. To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic would exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface, not the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface. The routing table contains more than two intra-area routes. To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic would exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
27359. What information is contained within an OSPF type 4 LSA?
2736	• summarized routes from other areas
2737	• the RID of the DR
2738	• the route to an ABR
2739	• the route to an ASBR*
274010. Which type of OSPF router has interfaces connected to multiple OSPF areas?
2741	• BDR
2742	• ABR*
2743	• ASBR
2744	• DR
2745OSPF Area Border Routers (ABRs) are used to connect OSPF areas. The ABR generates type 3 LSAs to advertise networks between areas.
274611. What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate from an ABR?
2747	• O IA*
2748	• O E1
2749	• O E2
2750	• O
2751O – intra-area routes learned from a DR
2752O IA – summary interarea routes that are learned from a ABR
2753O E1 or O E2 – external routes that are learned from an ASBR
275412. The graphic shows the partial output of the show ip route command:
2755R2# show ip route
2756172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
2757C 172.16.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
2758L 172.16.1.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
2759O IA 192.168.1.0/24 [110/2] via 192.168.2.1, 00:07:08, GigabitEthernet0/0
2760192.168.2.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
2761C 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
2762L 192.168.2.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
2763O 192.168.4.0/24 [110/2] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:07, GigabitEthernet0/1
2764192.168.6.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
2765O 192.168.6.1/32 [110/2] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:07, GigabitEthernet0/1
2766O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.2.1, 00:04:53, GigabitEthernet0/0
2767R2#
2768Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?
2769	• The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
2770	• The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
2771	• The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.*
2772	• This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
2773In a routing table, a route with the label O indicates a network that is advertised by another router in the same area. In this case, the exit interface is GigabitEthernet0/1. The designation O IA means the entry was learned from an interarea LSA that was generated from an ABR. Label O*E2 indicates an external network. In this case, the network designation of 0.0.0.0/0 indicates that this external network is the default route for all traffic that goes to external networks.
277413. Launch PT Hide and Save PT
2775
2776Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is preventing users who are connected to router R2 from accessing resources located either within the network 192.168.1.0 or the internet?
2777	• The router R2 is not receiving any updates from either router R1 or R3.*
2778	• The default route is not redistributed correctly from the router R1 by OSPF.
2779	• The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.
2780	• The interface that is connected to the ISP is down.
2781	• The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on one of the routers.
278214. Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)
2783	• Troubleshoot the configurations.
2784	• Define the network requirements.*
2785	• Configure OSPF.
2786	• Gather the required parameters.*
2787	• Verify OSPF.
2788	• Define the OSPF parameters.*
2789The best practice for implementing a multiarea OSPF network includes the steps:
2790(1) Define the network requirements. (2) Gather the required parameters. (3) Define the OSPF parameters. (4) Configure OSPF. (5) Verify OSPF. Steps 1-3 are considered the planning steps in the process.
279115. Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose two.)
2792	• 192.168.35.0/24*
2793	• 192.168.38.0/24
2794	• 192.168.37.0/24
2795	• 192.168.36.0/24
2796	• 192.168.33.0/24*
2797	• 192.168.31.0/24
2798The summary route 192.168.32.0/22 would include networks 192.168.32.0/24, 192.168.33.0/24, 192.168.34.0/24, and 192.168.35.0/24.
279916. Refer the the exibit. What is the role of router R2 in the OSPF domain?
2800	• BDR
2801	• DR
2802	• ABR*
2803	• ASBR
280417. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?
2805
2806	• The route was manually configured.
2807	• The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
2808	• The route was learned from within the area.
2809	• The route was learned from another area.*
2810The O IA in the routing table indicates that those routes were learned from other areas. The O indicates OSPF, and the IA indicates interarea routes that were received as summary LSAs.
281118. Which type of OSPF router will generate type 3 LSAs?
2812	• BDR
2813	• DR
2814	• ASBR
2815	• ABR*
2816Type 3 OSPF LSAs are generated by Area Border Routers (ABRs) to advertise networks between OSPF areas.
281719. Which type of OSPF LSA is generated by an ASBR and includes external routes?
2818	• type 2
2819	• type 4
2820	• type 3
2821	• type 5*
2822Type 5 LSAs are generated by ASBRs to advertise routes learned from an external domain into OSPF.
282320. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to summarize the networks shown in the exhibit as part of a multiarea OSPF implementation. All addresses are using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What is the correct summarization for these eight networks?
2824
2825	• 10.0.4.0 255.255.0.0
2826	• 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0*
2827	• 10.0.4.0 255.255.248.0
2828	• 10.0.8.0 255.255.248.0
2829The only correct summarization is 10.0.0.0 255.255.240.0. The binary calculation would be:
283010.0.4.0 00001010.00000000.0000 0100.00000000
283110.0.5.0 00001010.00000000.0000 0101.00000000
283210.0.6.0 00001010.00000000.0000 0110.00000000
283310.0.7.0 00001010.00000000.0000 0111.00000000
283410.0.8.0 00001010.00000000.0000 1000.00000000
283510.0.9.0 00001010.00000000.0000 1001.00000000
283610.0.10.0 00001010.00000000.0000 1010.00000000
283710.0.11.0 00001010.00000000.0000 1011.00000000
2838Determining the matching bits and then adding zeroes at the end results in a summary network address of 10.0.0.0; since 20 bits match, the mask would be /20.
283921. What are two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)
2840	• to simplify configuration
2841	• to ensure that an area is used to connect the network to the Internet
2842	• to reduce SPF calculations*
2843	• to provide areas in the network for routers that are not running OSPF
2844	• to reduce use of memory and processor resources*
2845If a router is not running OSPF, it is not configurable with an OSPF area. OSPF areas have no direct relationship with the Internet. Routers that run OSPF can connect to the Internet, but multiple OSPF areas are not required for this purpose. OSPF areas help to decrease the demand for router memory and processing power by limiting OSPF protocol traffic, keeping link-state databases small, and requiring fewer SPF recalculations. Multiarea OSPF requires additional steps to configure and therefore does not simplify the configuration process.
284622. Refer to the exibit. What is the role of router R2 in the OSPF domain?
2847
2848	• DR
2849	• BDR
2850	• ASBR
2851	• ABR*
2852Router R2 is an Area Border Router (ABR) because it has interfaces that are participating in multiple OSPF areas.
285323. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?
2854	• area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
2855	• area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
2856	• area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
2857	• area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0*
2858Because all OSPF networks start with area 0, the new area would need to be anything but area 0, The correct option would be area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0 because this is the correct summarization of the networks in the new area 15. The summarization must come from area 15 to area 0, because all OSPF areas interconnect via area 0. The matching bits for the correct option, in binary, are:
2859172.16.8.0 10101100.00010000.00001 000.00000000
2860172.16.10.0 10101100.00010000.00001 010.00000000
2861172.16.12.0 10101100.00010000.00001 100.00000000
286224. Question as presented:
2863
2864
2865
2866Multiarea OSPF networks use four types of routers: internal router, backbone router, Area Border Router (ABR), and Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR). Their roles depend upon the location and function of their interfaces. They all participate in OSPF routing. In addition, an ASBR can participate in other routing protocols and import non-OSPF network information to the OSPF network.
286725. Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.
2868OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the designated* router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks.
2869The type 2 LSAs are generated by the designated router in multiaccess and nonbroadcast multiaccess networks.
287026. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
2871An ASBR generates type 5* LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.
287227. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
2873A type 4* LSA identifies the ASBR and provides a route to it.
287428. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2875
2876The network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1* command must be issued to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.​
2877The statement needs to contain the network 192.168.10.128 with a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.127. The area where this network is located is area 1.
287829. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Why are users in the OSPF network not able to access the Internet?
2879	• The default route is not redistributed correctly from router R1 by OSPF.
2880	• The network statement is misconfigured on router R1.*
2881	• The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on routers R2 and R3.
2882	• The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.
2883	• The interface that is connected to the ISP router is down.
2884The configuration of the redistribution of the default route on the router R1 is correct. The interface that is located between the router R1 and the ISP is operational. The OSPF timers of the routers R1, R2, and R3 are set to default. The network statement on router R1 contains an error in the network address.
288530. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
2886Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2887What is the missing command on router R2 to establish an adjacency between routers R1 and R3?
2888network 172.16.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*
2889Older Version
289031. Which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features, including voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?
2891	• Advanced Security
2892	• Advanced IP Services
2893	• Advanced Enterprise Services*
2894	• Service Provider Services
289532. What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?
2896	• 2
2897	• 3
2898	• 15*
2899	• 52
2900	• 1900
290133. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the “universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?
2902	• It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.
2903	• It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.
2904	• It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.
2905	• It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality. *
290634. Which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0 extended maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?
2907	• They consist of two separate parallel trains.
2908	• The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are available.
2909	• The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the extended maintenance release does.*
2910	• A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended maintenance release before the extended is made available.
291135. When a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a valid IOS image to load by default?
2912	• RAM
2913	• ROM
2914	• flash memory*
2915	• NVRAM
291636. A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?
2917	• show flash0:*
2918	• show version
2919	• show interfaces
2920	• show startup-config
292137. The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?
2922	• Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next reboot.
2923	• Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the router
2924	• Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently installed IOS image file.
2925	• Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.*
292638. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:
2927R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin 
2928R1(config)# boot system rom
2929What is the effect of the command sequence?
2930	• On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
2931	• The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
2932	• The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*
2933	• The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.
293439. Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?
2935	• IPBase*
2936	• DATA
2937	• UC
2938	• SEC
293940. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?
2940	• DATA*
2941	• IPVoice
2942	• Security*
2943	• Enterprise Services
2944	• Unified Communications*
2945	• Advanced IP Services
294641. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?
2947	• Software Claim Certificate
2948	• End User License Agreement
2949	• Unique Device Identifier
2950	• Product Activation Key*
295142. Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device identifier of a Cisco router?
2952	• show version
2953	• show license udi *
2954	• show running-configuration
2955	• license install stored-location-url
295643. A newly hired network engineer wants to use a 2911 router from storage. What command would the technician use to verify which IOS technology licenses have been activated on the router?
2957	• show flash0:
2958	• show interfaces
2959	• show license*
2960	• show startup-config
2961	• show version
296244. Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?
2963	• license save
2964	• show license
2965	• license boot module module-name
2966	• license accept end user agreement*
296745. How long is the evaluation license period for Cisco IOS Release 15.0 software packages?
2968	• 15 days
2969	• 30 days
2970	• 60 days *
2971	• 180 days
297246. What is the purpose of a T train release in Cisco IOS 15?
2973	• It is used for long-term maintenance, enabling customers to qualify, deploy, and remain on the release for an extended period.
2974	• It provides regular bug fix maintenance rebuilds, plus critical fix support for network-affecting bugs.*
2975	• It provides premium packages and enables additional IOS software feature combinations that address more complex network requirements.
2976	• It specifies advanced IP services features such as advanced security and service provider packages.
297747. What code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?
2978	• SPA *
2979	• universalk9
2980	• M
2981	• mz
298248. What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the “universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?
2983	• It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.​*
2984	• It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.
2985	• It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.
2986	• It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.
298749. How long is the evaluation license period for Cisco IOS Release 15.0 software packages?
2988	• 30 days
2989	• 15 days
2990	• 60 days*
2991	• 180 days
299250. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
2993The license “install” flash0:seck9-C1900-SPE150_K9-FAB12340099.xml command will restore the specified saved Cisco IOS Release 15 license to a router.
299451. Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used.)
2995
2996
2997
2998
2999
3000Place the options in the following order:
3001specifying the feature set -> universalk9 
3002minor release number -> 1 
3003where the image runs and if the file is compressed -> mz 
3004platform on which the image runs -> c1900 
3005– not scored –
3006maintanence release and rebuild number -> M4 
3007new feature release number -> 4 
3008file extension -> bin
3009major release number -> 15
301052. Match the description to the Cisco IOS category. (Not all options apply.)
3011
3012
3013
3014Place the options in the following order:
3015technology train
3016[+] branches from another train 
3017[+] has the latest features 
3018mainline train
3019[#] possibly is 12.4 
3020[#] contains mostly bug fixes
3021	• 53. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
3022	The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
3023	• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration*
3024	• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
3025	• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
3026	• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
302754. In addition to IPBase, what are the three technology packs that are shipped within the universal Cisco IOS Software Release 15 image? (Choose three.)
3028	• Advanced IP Service
3029	• SP Services
3030	• Unified Communications*
3031	• Security*
3032	• DATA*
303355. What code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.153-3.M.bin indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?
3034	• M
3035	• universalk9
3036	• mz
3037	• SPA*
303856. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
3039	• Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
3040	• Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
3041	• Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
3042	• Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*
3043	• Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*
304457. Which three images are considered premium software packages for Cisco IOS Release 12.4? (Choose three.)
3045	• IP Voice
3046	• Enterprise Base
3047	• Advanced Security
3048	• Enterprise Services*
3049	• Advanced IP Services*
3050	• Advanced Enterprise Services*
305158. A network technician is troubleshooting problems with a router that is running IOS 15. Which command will display the features activated for the licenses that are installed on the router?
3052	• show flash0:
3053	• show license*
3054	• show startup-config
3055	• show version
305659. Match each type of OSPF router to its description. (Not all options are used.)
3057
3058
3059
3060internal router ~~> 3.a router with all its interfaces in the same area*
3061area border router ~~> 5.a router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas*
3062backbone router ~~> 1. a router in the backbone area*
3063autonomous system boundary router ~~> 4. a router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network*
3064
3065Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-9-exam-answers-100-full.html> 
3066
30671. Which two parameters must match between neighboring OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose two.)
3068	• router ID
3069	• IP address
3070	• process ID
3071	• cost
3072	• hello / dead timers*
3073	• network types*
3074To form a neighbor relationship between OSPF speaking routers, the routers should reside on the same network and have the same hello and dead intervals. Others criteria that must match are area ID and network type.
30752. Which command can be used to view the OSPF hello and dead time intervals?
3076	• show ip protocols
3077	• show ip ospf interface*
3078	• show ip ospf neighbor
3079	• show ip ospf route
3080The OSPF hello and dead timers can be configured per interface. Hence, the correct command used to view the timers is the show ip ospf interface command. Adding the interface name and number to the command displays output for a specific interface.
30813. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPFv3 configuration on an IPv6 network. The administrator issues the show ipv6 protocols command. What is the purpose for this command?
3082	• to verify that the router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers
3083	• to display the OSPFv3 parameters configured on an interface
3084	• to display the OSPFv3 learned routes in the routing table
3085	• to verify OSPFv3 configuration information*
3086There are various show commands to help troubleshoot or verify OSPFv3, including these:
3087show ipv6 protocols – used to verify configuration information
3088show ipv6 ospf neighbor – used to verify that the router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers
3089show ipv6 ospf interface – used to display the OSPFv3 parameters configured on an interface
3090show ipv6 route ospf – used to display only the OSPFv3 learned routes in the routing table
30914. A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?
3092	• Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*
3093	• Configure the network statements.
3094	• Change the interface priority.
3095	• Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
30965. The graphic shows some partial output of the show ipv6 route command:
3097Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn based on the output of the show ipv6 route command? (Choose two.)
3098
3099	• Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::/64 is an external route advertised by an ASBR.
3100	• R2 receives default route information from another router.*
3101	• Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:B001::/64 is a route advertised by an ABR.*
3102	• Routes 2001:DB8:CAFE:1::/64 and 2001:DB8:CAFE:3::/64 are advertised from the same router.
3103	• Route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::/64 is advertised by a router three hops away.
3104The default route ::/0 is learned from another router (signified by OE2) with the link-local address of FE80::200:CFF:FE3B:7501. The symbol OI indicates that a route is learned from an ABR. Routes 2001:DB8:CAFE:1::/64 and 2001:DB8:CAFE:3::/64 are learned from different link-local addresses and therefore are not from the same router.
31056. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)
3106
3107	• The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*
3108	• There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*
3109	• This interface is using the default priority.
3110	• The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.*
3111	• The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3
3112	• The BDR has three neighbors.
31137. A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?
3114	• The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*
3115	• The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
3116	• The dead interval will not change from the default value.
3117	• The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.
31188. Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and BDR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)
3119
3120	• R4 is BDR for segment B.
3121	• R1 is DR for segment A.*
3122	• R2 is BDR for segment A.*
3123	• R3 is DR for segment A.
3124	• R5 is BDR for segment B.*
3125	• R3 is BDR for segment A.
3126For segment A, R1 becomes DR because of the priority of 128 of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. R2 becomes BDR because of the Loopback 0 interface IPv4 address.
3127For segment B, R3 becomes DR because of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface priority of 255. R5 becomes BDR because of the IPv4 address on the Loopback 0 interface.
31289. Refer to the exhibit. What the amount of time that has elapsed since the router received a hello packet?
3129
3130	• 40 seconds
3131	• 4 seconds*
3132	• 10 seconds
3133	• 6 seconds
3134The show ip ospf interface command is used to display the OSPF parameters configured on an interface like the process ID; router ID; area, and so forth. In the exhibit the router has a default hello interval of 10 seconds. It also displays that the next hello is due in 6 seconds. Hence, the time elapsed is 4 seconds.
313510. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
3136A network administrator is configuring multiarea OSPFv3 on the routers. The routing design requires that the router RT1 is a DROTHER for the network in Area 0 and the DR for the network in Area 1. Check the settings and status of the routers. What can the administrator do to ensure that RT1 will meet the design requirement after all routers restart?
3137	• Use the ipv6 ospf priority 0 command on the interface g0/0 of RT1.
3138	• Use the ipv6 ospf priority 10 command on the interface g0/2 of RT1.*
3139	• Configure the loopback 0 interface with 6.6.6.6.
3140	• Restart all routers except for RT1.
3141	• Change the router ID to 5.5.5.5 on RT1.
3142In a multiarea OSPF network, if the interface priority is the same for all routers, then the router with highest router ID becomes the DR and the router with second highest router ID becomes BDR. Changing the router ID can influence the DR/BDR election. However, for an ABR, the same router ID will be used for DR/BDR elections for multiple areas. In this case, it is better to use the interface priority value to manage the DR/BDR election for different areas, because this value is interface specific.
314311. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring OSPF for R1 and R2, but the adjacency cannot be established. What is the cause of the issue?
3144
3145	• The interface s0/0/0 on router R2 is missing a link-local address.
3146	• The process ID is misconfigured.
3147	• The IP address on router R2 is misconfigured.
3148	• The area ID is misconfigured.*
3149To form a neighbor relationship between OSPF speaking routers, the routers should reside on the same network and have the same Hello and dead intervals. Others criteria that must match are area ID and network type. In the topology displayed, the two routers are in two different areas, thus causing an area mismatch error.
315012. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers but PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What is the most likely problem?
3151
3152	• Interface Fa0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.
3153	• Interface S0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.
3154	• Interface Fa0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.*
3155	• Interface s0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.
3156If a LAN network is not advertised using OSPFv2, a remote network will not be reachable. The output displays a successful neighbor adjacency between router R1 and R2 on the interface S0/0 of both routers.
315713. What three states are transient OPSF neighbor states that indicate a stable adjacency is not yet formed between two routers? (Choose three.)
3158	• established
3159	• loading*
3160	• 2way
3161	• exstart*
3162	• full
3163	• exchange*
3164Only the full and 2way states indicate that a stable adjacency is formed.​ The loading, exstart, and exchange states are transitory states between the 2way and full states.
316514. An administrator is troubleshooting OSPFv3 adjacency issues. Which command would the administrator use to confirm that OSPFv3 hello and dead intervals are matching between routers?
3166	• ​show ipv6 ospf interface​*
3167	• show ipv6 ospf​
3168	• show ipv6 ospf neighbor​
3169	• show ipv6 protocols​
317015. When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:
3171O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
3172What information can be gathered from this output?
3173	• The route is located two hops away.
3174	• The metric for this route is 110.
3175	• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
3176	• This route is a propagated default route.*
3177The metric towards this external route is one and 192.168.16.3 is the address of the next interface towards the destination.
317816. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
3179
3180	• The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
3181	• The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
3182	• The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*
3183	• The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
3184There is a mismatch between the timer intervals of R1 and R2. In OSPF the timers must match on two routers before they will become neighbors. The IPv6 addresses that are used by OSPFv3 are link-local, and are in the same subnet. The OSPFv3 process ID is locally significant, and does not have to match between routers. The default OSPF interface priority value is 1, and does not prevent neighbor relationships from forming.
318517. Refer to the exhibit. Directly connected networks configured on router R1 are not being shared with neighboring routers through OSPFv3. What is the cause of the issue?
3186
3187	• There are no network statements for the routes in the OSPF configuration.
3188	• The no shutdown command is missing on the interfaces.
3189	• IPv6 OSPF routing is not enabled.
3190	• There is a mismatch of OSPF process ID in commands.*
3191Unlike OSPFv2, OSPFV3 does not use the network command to advertise directly attached networks. OSPFv3 is enabled directly on the interface. These networks will be included in advertisements once the command ipv6 ospf process_id area area_id is entered on the interface. The OSPF process_id must match with the ipv6 router ospf command.
319218. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
3193Which routers are the DR and BDR in this topology?
3194	• DR:R6 BDR:R5
3195	• DR:R1 BDR:R2
3196	• DR:R5 BDR:R3
3197	• DR:R3 BDR:R6
3198	• DR:R3 BDR:R5*
3199	• DR:R4 BDR:R1
3200Once OSPF neighbor adjacencies have formed, use the show ip ospf neighbors command to determine which router was elected the DR and which router was elected the BDR. In this scenario, R3 was elected the DR because it had the highest priority (10). R5 was elected the BDR because it had the highest router ID among eligible routers (5.5.5.5). R6 was not eligible to become the BDR because its priority was set to 0.
320119. Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?​
3202
3203	• If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to assume the role of DR.​
3204	• With an election of the DR, the number of adjacencies is reduced from 6 to 3.*
3205	• ​When a DR is elected all other non-DR routers become DROTHER.
3206	• ​All DROTHER routers will send LSAs to the DR and BDR to multicast 224.0.0.5.
3207On OSPF multiaccess networks, a DR is elected to be the collection and distribution point for LSAs sent and received. A BDR is also elected in case the DR fails. All other non-DR or BDR routers become DROTHER. Instead of flooding LSAs to all routers in the network, DROTHERs only send their LSAs to the DR and BDR using the multicast address 224.0.0.6. If there is no DR/BDR election, the number of required adjacencies is n(n-1)/2 = > 4(4-1)/2 = 6. With the election, this number is reduced to 3.​
320820. Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
3209	• show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
3210	• show ip ospf neighbor
3211	• show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
3212	• show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*
3213The show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0 command will display the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point serial WAN link between two OSPFv2 routers. The show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0 command will display the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point serial link between two OSPFv3 routers. The show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1 command will display the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a multiaccess link between two (or more) OSPFv2 routers. The show ip ospf neighbor command will display the dead interval elapsed time since the last hello message was received, but does not show the configured value of the timer.
321421. Question as presented:
3215
3216
3217
3218During the DR and BDR election process, the DR will be the one with the highest interface priority. If the priority is not manually configured, there will be a tie on the default value of 1, so the router with the highest router ID will be selected. The router ID is chosen depending on what is configured on the router. A manually configured router ID is preferred, with the highest IPv4 address on a loopback interface being preferred next, followed by the highest IPv4 address on a physical interface.
321922. Which OSPF feature allows a remote OSPF area to participate in OSPF routing when it cannot connect directly to OSPF Area 0?
3220	• virtual link*
3221	• NBMA
3222	• point-to-point connectivity
3223	• DR/BDR
322423. A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.) 
3225	• no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*
3226	• ip ospf hello-interval 10
3227	• no ipv6 router ospf 10
3228	• no ipv6 ospf cost 10
3229	• no ipv6 ospf hello-interval*
3230	• ip ospf dead-interval 40
3231The no ipv6 ospf hello-interval and no ipv6 ospf dead-interval commands issued on each OSPFv3 interface will reset the intervals to the respective default periods. This ensures that the timers on all routers now match and, providing other appropriate configurations are correct, the routers will form adjacencies. The ip ospf hello-interval 10 and ip ospf dead-interval 40 commands are OPSFv2 commands that are used for IPv4 routing. If the ipv6 ospf hello-interval and ipv6 ospf dead-interval commands are used, then the interval has to be specified in seconds. The parameter default is not valid in these commands.
323224. Match each OSPF election criterion to its sequential order for the OSPF DR and BDR election process. (Not all options are used.)
3233
3234
3235
3236first ~~> 4.Elect the router with the highest interface priority.*
3237second ~~> 2.Elect the router with the highest manually configured router ID.*
3238third ~~> 1.Elect the router with the highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces.*
3239fourth ~~> 5.Elect the router with the highest active IPv4 address on physical interfaces.*
3240
3241Z <https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-3-v5-0-3-v6-0-chapter-10-exam-answers-100-full.html>