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1ITE204-COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE AND ORGANIZATION
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3MCQ
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51. The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and obtain its contents
6
7is called the (C) access time
8
92. The idea of memory hierarchy is based
10
11(A) on the property of locality of reference
12
133. Write Through technique is used in which memory for updating the data
14(D) Cache memory
15
164. what is the transfer rate for non random access memory? a) Tn=Ta+(N/R)
175. Memory unit accessed by content is called
18 (D) Associative
19
20Memory
21
226. In a fixed point binary division algorithm, if E is equal to zero, what updation is done in Qn and A registers
23a) Qn=0, A=A+B, b) Qn=1,A=A-B
24c) Qn=NULL, A=A d) Qn=NUL,A=0
257. How to calculate the total capacity of the internal memory?
26a) Total memory= Number of words in memory * word length
278. The performance of cache memory is frequently measured in terms of a quantity called
28a) hit ratio
29
309. The ___________ that enables one to make a comparison of desired bit locations within a word for specific match and to do this for all words simultaneously .
31
32a) Direct access b) indirect access
33
34c) associative access d) random
35
3611. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses are given by the
37
38c) DMA controllers
39
4012. After the complition of the DMA transfer the processor is notified by
41a) Acknowledge signal
4213. The techinique whereby the DMA controller steals the access cycles of the processor to operate is called
43
44a) Cycle stealing
45
4614.
47To overcome the conflict over the possession of the BUS we use ______
48
49a) BUS arbitrators
50
5115. Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5?
52a. Distributed parity
53
54
55
5616. The Centralised BUS arbitration is similar to ______ interrupt circuit
57
58a) Daisy chain
5917. Which of the following raid levels provides maximum usable disk space?
60
61b. RAID 0
6218. An array of disks is more likely to fail compared to a single disk. How is it that RAID arrays still manage to provide more data protection compared to a single disk?
63 b. Using either mirroring or parity
6419. Which level of RAID refers to disk mirroring with block striping?
65a) RAID level 1
66
6720. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection?
68b. RAID 4
690 d. RAID 5
701. Consider the following sequence of micro�operations
71
72MBR � PC
73
74MAR �
75X PC �Y
76
77Memory �MBR
78
79Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?
80
81(A) Instruction fetch (B) Operand fetch (C) Conditional branch (D) Initiation of interrupt service
82
832. The load instruction is mostly used to designate a transfer from memory to a processor register known as____.
84
85A. Accumulator
86
87
88
89
903. For computers based on three - address instruction formats, each address field can be used to specify which of the following:
91
92S1: A memory operand
93
94S2: A processor register
95
96S3: An implied accumulator registers
97
98(A) Either S1 or S2
99
100(B) Either S2 or S3
1014. The addressing mode used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y, is _____.
102
103
104C. index
105
106
1075. The effective address of the following instruction is , MUL 5(R1,R2)
108
109
110
111
112a) 5+[R1]+[R2]
113
114
1156. When we use auto increment or auto decrement, which of the following is/are true 1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the operand and then the address gets altered.
116
1172) In auto increment the operand is retrieved first and then the address altered.
118
1193) Both of them can be used on general purpose registers as well as memory locations.
120
121
122b) 2
123c) 2,3
1247. The load instruction is mostly used to designate a transfer from memory to a processor
125
126register known as____.
127A. Accumulator
128
129
130
131
1328. Logic X-OR operation of (4ACO)H & (B53F)H results _____.
133
134
135
136C. FFFF
137
1389. Generally Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as it______.
139
140 B.has higher speed
141
142
143
14410. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It uses associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be_____.
145
146
147C. 16 bits
148
149
150
15111. A system uses 3 page frames for storing process pages in main memory. It uses the Least
152
153
154Recently Used (LRU) page replacement policy. Assume that all the page frames are initially empty. What is the total number of page faults that will occur while processing the
155
156page reference string given below?
157
1584, 7, 6, 1, 7, 6, 1, 2, 7, 2
159
160A. 4
161
16212. A computer has a 256 KByte, 4-way set associative, write back data cache with block size of 32 Bytes. The processor sends 32 bit addresses to the cache controller.Each cache tag directory entry contains, in addition to address tag, 2 valid bits, 1 modified bit and 1 replacement bit.The size of the cache tag directory is
163
164 (D) 32 Kbits
165
166
167
16813. Cache memory works on the principle of_____.
169
170A. Locality of data
171
172
173
174
17514. When process requests for a DMA transfer ,
176
177
178a) Both a and c
179
18015. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses are given by the
181a) DMA controllers
182
183
18416. From amongst the following given scenarios determine the right one to justify interrupt mode of data transfer
185
186i) Bulk transfer of several kilo-byte
187
188ii) Moderately large data transfer of more than 1kb
189iii) Short events like mouse action
190iv) Keyboard inputs
191
192
193
194a) iv
195
19617. Which one of the following is true with regard to a CPU having a single interrupt request line and single interrupt grant line�??
197
198i) Neither vectored nor multiple interrupting devices is possible.
199
200ii) Vectored interrupts is not possible but multiple interrupting devices is possible.
201
202iii) Vectored interrupts is possible and multiple interrupting devices is not possible.
203
204iv) Both vectored and multiple interrupting devices is possible.
205
206a) iii
20718. What is the unique characteristic of RAID 6 (Choose one)?
208
209c. Two independent distributed parity
21019. Which of the following combinations can support RAID 05?
211
212b. 3 sets with 2 disks each
213
214c. 4 sets with 3 disks each
215
21620. The minimum duration of the active low interrupt pulse for being sensed without being lost must be
217
218 b) equal to one machine cycle
219
22021. If two interrupts, of higher priority and lower priority occur simultaneously, then the service provided is for
221
222 b) interrupt of higher priority
223
22422. The data-in register of I/O port is a) read by host to get input
22523. Which one of the following connects high-speed high-bandwidth device to memory subsystem and CPU.
226
227a) expansion bus
228
229
230
23124. _________ register keeps track of the instructions stored in program stored in memory.
232 (C) PC (Program Counter)
233
234
23525. A group of bits that tell the computer to perform a specific operation is known as
236
237(A) Instruction code
238
23926.In a computer architecture a BUS is _______
240
241
242A. A software to transport data
243
24427.A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1K�8). The number of 2� 4 decoders with enable line needed to construct a 16K�16 RAM from1K�8 RAM is
245
246
247
248A. 5
249
250
251
252
25328.What is the minimum number of NAND gates required to implement a 2-input EXCLUSIVE-OR function without using any other logic gate?
254
255
256A. 4
257
25829.What are the states of the Auxiliary Carry (AC) and Carry Flag (CF) after executing the following 8085 program? MVI H, 5DH; MIV L, 6BH; MOV A, H; ADD L
259
260
261
262
263
264B. AC=1 and CY=0
265
266
26730.Which of the following statement is false?
268
269A. Virtual memory implements the translation of a program�s address space into physical memory address space
270
271B. Virtual memory allows each program to exceed the size of the primary memory
272C. Virtual memory increases the degree of multiprogramming
273
274D. Virtual memory reduces the context switching overhead == false
275
276
27731.How many 8-bit characters can be transmitted per second over a 9600 baud serial communication link using asynchronous mode of transmission with one start bit, eight data bits, two stop bits, and one parity bit?
278
279
280
281A. 800
282Course : Computer Architecture
283
284Addressing modes
285
2861. Registers R1 and R2 of a computer contain the decimal values 1200 and 4600 respectively. What is the effective address of the memory operand for
287
288the following instructions
289
290(i) Load 20(R1), R5
291
292(ii) Subtract R1, R5
293 (D) 1220 and 1200
294
2952. Which amongst the following refers to Absolute addressing mode
296
297(A) move R1, R2 (B) move LOC1, LOC2
298
299(C) move LOC1, R2 (D) move LOC2, R1
300
301
3023. Computers use addressing mode techniques for
303
304_____________________.
305(A) Giving programming versatility to the user by providing facilities as pointers
306
307to memory counters for loop control
308
309(B) To reduce no. of bits in the field of instruction
310
311(C) Specifying rules for modifying or interpreting address field of the instruction
312
313(D) All the above ==answer
314
3154. Which of the following address modes calculate the effective address as address part of the instruction) + (content of CPU register)
316
317 (B) Indirect Address mode.
318
319
320
3215. A Program Counter contains a number 825 and address part of the instruction contains the number 24. The effective address in the relative address mode, when an instruction is read from the memory is
322 (B)
323. 850.
324
325
3266. In which addressing mode the operand is given explicitly in the instruction
327
328 (B) Immediate.
329
330
331
3327. Content of the program counter is added to the address part of the instruction in order to obtain the effective address is called.
333(A) relative address mode.
334
335
3368. Word 20 contains
337
33840
339
340
341Word 30 contains
342
34350 Word 40
344
345contains 60 Word
346
34750 contains 70
348
349Which of the following instructions does not, load 60 into the Accumulator
350
351(A) Load immediate 60
352
353(B) Load direct 30
354(C) Load indirect 20
355(D) both (A) & (C) ==answer
356
357Von-Neumann architecture
358
3599. Which of the following is not a part of instruction cycle?
360
361
362(C) Wait Phase
363
36410. After fetching the instruction from the memory, the binary code of the instruction goes to
365
366. (B) Instruction registers.
367
368
369
37011. What is the content of Stack Pointer (SP)?
371
372(C) Address of the top element of the stack
37312. The address to the next instruction lies in
374
375
376
377(C) Memory Buffer Register
378
379
380
381
382
38313. _________ register keeps track of the instructions stored in program stored in memory.
384
385
386
387(C) PC (Program Counter)
388
38914. When an instruction is read from the memory, it is called
390
391 (B) Fetch cycle
392
393
394
39515. What is the content of Stack Pointer (SP)?
396
397
398(C) Address of the top element of the stack
399.
400
401Instruction formats
402
403
40416. The following segment of instructions belong to ADD R1
405
406MOV R1, R2
407
408MUL R3
409
410OUT 03H
411
412(A) General Register Organization CPU
413
414(B) Accumulator Type CPU
415(C) Stack Type CPU
416(D) information not sufficient to decide
41717. A Stack-organized Computer uses instruction of
418
419
420
421(C) Zero addressing
422
423
424
425
426A group of bits that tell the computer to perform a specific operation is known as
427
428(A) Instruction code
429
430
431
432
433
43419. MRI indicates
435
436
437
438
439(A) Memory Reference Instruction.
440
44120. Zero address instruction format is used for
442
443(C) Stack-organized architecture.
444
445Instruction classifications
446
44721. The load instruction is mostly used to designate a transfer from memory to a processor register known as
448
449(A) Accumulator
450
451
452
45322. The instructions which copy information from one location to another either in the processor�s internal register set or in the external main memory are called
454
455(A) Data transfer instructions. (B) Program control
456
457instructions.
458
459
460
461Main memory
462
46323. Generally Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as it
464
465
466
467(A) has lower cell density and speed is high
468
46924. Dynamic RAM consumes ________ Power and ________ then the
470
471Static RAM.
472
473(A) less, slower
474
47525. Which of the memory holds the information when the Power Supply is switched off?
476
477
478
479(C) EEROM
480
48126. Which of the memory holds the information when the Power Supply is switched off?
482A. EEROM
483
48427. Information is written to the ____ chips by the manufacturer and this information cannot be changed.
485A. ROM
48628. An ____ chip is a special ROM chip that the manufacturer can reprogram by using a speacil programming device that uses ultraviolet light.
487
488A. EPROM
489
49029. You can update the software on the ____ by running a speacil software setup program provided by the manufacturer.
491
492A. EEPROM
493
49430. What characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage?
495
496
497
498(C) it is volatile
499
50031. The access method used for magnetic tape is_________
501
502 c) Sequential
503Cache memory
504
50532. Cache memory sits between
506
507(A) CPU and RAM
508
50933. The idea of cache memory is based
510
511(A) on the property of locality of reference
512
513
51434. Write Through technique is used in which memory for updating the data
515
516
517
518 (D) Cache
519 memory
520
521
522
523
524
52535. What is called the configuration where when the CPU stores a data on the memory cache this data isn�t immediately written to the RAM?
526
527A. Write Back
528
529
53036. When the CPU needs a certain data and it is not loaded in the memory cache and the CPU needs to load this data directly from RAM we say that there was a:
531
532A. Cache miss
533
53437. Which cache mapping function does not require a replacement algorithm?
535A. Direct mapping
536
53738. Cache memory works on the principle of
538
539(A) Locality of reference
54039. Which of the following memories has the shortest access times?
541A. Cache memory
542
54340. Which is the fastest cache mapping function?
544A. Direct mapping
545
54641. The performance of cache memory is frequently measured in terms of a quantity called
547
548 (B) Hit ratio.
549
550
551
552
55342. The method for updating the main memory as soon as a word is removed from the Cache is called
554
555
556A. write-back
557
55843. How many different addresses are required by the memory that contain 16K words?
559
560
561
562
563(C)16,384
564
565
566
567
568
569
570
57144. Which cache write mechanism allows an updated memory location in the cache to remain out of date in memory until the block containing the updated memory location is replaced in the cache?
572
573
574A. Write back
575
576Virtual memory
577
578In a virtual memory system, the addresses used by the programmer
579
580belongs to
581
582
583
584(B) address
585
586space.
587
588
589
590
591
59246. A page fault
593
594
595(A) Occurs when a program accesses a page not currently in main memory.
596
597
598
599I/O devices; I/O fundamentals, DMA
600
60147. Which disk is one of the important I/O devices and its most commonly used as permanent storage devices in any processor:
602(A) Hard disk
603
60448. A monitor consists of :
605
606(A) CRT
607
60849. LCD stands for:
609(A) Liquid crystal display
610
61150. Printer is a:
612
613(A) Hardcopy
614
615
61651. ______interface is an entity that controls data transfer from external device, main memory and or CPU registers:
617
618(A) I/O interface
619
62052. To resolve problems of I/O devices there is a special hardware component between CPU and_______ to supervise and synchronize all input output transfers:
621
622
623(A) Peripheral
624
625
62653. I/O modules are designed with aims to:
627(A) Achieve device independence
628(B) Handle errors
629(C) Speed up transfer of data
630(D) Handle deadlocks
631(E) Enable multi-user systems to use dedicated device
632(F) All of these == answer
63354. In devices 2 status reporting signals are:
634(A) BUSY
635(B) READY
636(C) Both a & b ==answer
637(D) None of these
63855. _______is a single address space for storing both memory and I/O devices:
639(A) Memory-mapped I/O
640
64156. Following are the disadvantages of memory-mapped I/O are:
642(A) Valuable memory address space used up
643(B) I/O module register treated as memory addresses
644(C) Same machine intersection used to access both memory and I/O device
645(D) All of these==answer
646
647
64857. Two ways in which computer buses can communicate with memory in case of I/O devices by using:
649
650(A) Separate buses for memory and I/O device
651(B) Common bus for memory and I/O device
652(C) both a & b ==answer
653(D) none of these
65458. There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device:
655(A) Isolated I/O
656(B) Memory-mapped I/O
657(C) Both a & b ==answer
658(D) None of these
65959. I/O module must recognize a______ address for each peripheral it controls:
660
661(A) Unique
662
66360. Each interaction b/w CPU and I/O module involves:
664(A) Bus arbitration
665
66661. Which are 4 types of commands received by an interface:
667(A) Control, status, data output, data input
668
66962. 2 control lines in I/O interface is:
670(A) RD, WR
67163. If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be:
672
673(A) Synchronous
674
675
676
677
67864. ________is a single control line that informs destination unit that a valid is available on the bus:
679
680(E) Strobe
68165. What is disadvantage of strobe scheme:
682(E) No surety that destination received data before source removes it
683(F) Destination unit transfer without knowing whether source placed data on data bus
684
685(G) Can�t said
686(H) Both a & b ==answer
68766. In_______ technique has 1 or more control signal for acknowledgement that is used for intimation:
688(A) Handshaking
689
69067. Modes of transfer b/w computer and I/O device are:
691(A) Programmed I/O
692(B) Interrupt-initiated I/O
693(C) DMA
694(D) All of these ==answer
69568. ______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program:
696
697(A) Programmed I/O
698(B) DMA
699(C) Handshaking
700(D) Strobe
70169. _______is a dedicated processor that combines interface unit and DMA as one unit:
702
703(A) Input-Output Processor
704
705
706
70770. ______is a special purpose dedicated processor that is designed specially designed for data transfer in network:
708
709(A) Data Communication Processor
710
71171. ______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data:
712
713(A) Interrupt-initiated I/O
714
71572. Interrupt-driven I/O data transfer technique is based on______ concept:
716(A) On demand processing
717
71873. Which technique helps processor to run a program concurrently with I/O operations:
719(A) Interrupt driven I/O
720
721Interrupts
722
72374. PSW is saved in stack when there is a
724
725(A) Interrupt recognized
726
72775. When CPU is executing a Program that is part of the Operating System, it is said to be in
728
729 (B) System mode
730
731
732
733
73476. What is a trap?
735
736 (B) Internal Interrupt.
737
738
739
740A. 3 types of exceptions are:
741
742 Interrupts
743 Traps
744 System calls
745 All of these ==answer
746B. Which exception is also called software interrupt:
747
748 System calls
749C. User programs interact with I/O devices through:
750 Operating system
751
752D. Which table handle store address of interrupt handling subroutine:
753 Interrupt vector table
754
755E. Which technique is used that identifies the highest priority resource by means of software:
756
757 Polling
758
759F. ________interrupt establishes a priority over the various sources to determine which request should be entertained first:
760
761(A) Priority interrupt
762
763
76483. _____method is used to establish priority by serially connecting all devices that request an interrupt:
765
766
767(A) Daisy chaining
768
76984. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass signal only if it has:
770
771(A) No interrupt request
772
77385. VAD stands for:
774(A) Vector address
775
77686. _______interrupt method uses a register whose bits are set separately by interrupt signal for each device:
777
778(A) Parallel priority interrupt
779
78087. ______register is used whose purpose is to control status of each interrupt request in parallel priority interrupt:
781
782(A) Mask
783
78488. The ANDed output of bits of interrupt register and mask register are set as input of:
785
786(A) Priority encoder
787
788
789
79089. Which 2 output bits of priority encoder are the part of vector address for each interrupt source in parallel priority interrupt:
791(A) A0 and A1
792
79390. What is the purpose of A0 and A1 output bits of priority encoder in parallel priority:
794
795(A) Tell subroutine which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
796
79791. When CPU invokes a subroutine it performs following functions:
798(A) Pushes updated PC content(return address) on stack
799(B) Loads PC with starting address of subroutine
800(C) Loads PC with starting address of ALU
801(D) Both a & b ==answer
80292. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection?
803
804a. RAID 4
805
806b. RAID 5
80793. 3. Which one of these is characteristic of RAID 5?
808a. Distributed parity
80994. What is the unique characteristic of RAID 6 (Choose one)?
810
811a. Two independent distributed parity
812
81395. 5. Which of the following combinations can support RAID 05?
814
815a. 3 sets with 2 disks each
816Or 4 set 3 disk
817
81896. What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?
819
820a. 2
821
82297. Which of the following raid levels provides maximum usable disk space?
823
824a. RAID 0
82598. An array of disks is more likely to fail compared to a single disk. How is it that RAID arrays still manage to provide more data protection compared to a single disk?
826
827
828a. Using either mirroring or parity
829
830
831
832
833ITE302 - Database Systems / Comprehensive Exam Quesions
834
8351. Assume that a table R with 1000 records is to be joined with another table S with 10000 records. What is the maximum number of records that would result in if we join R with S and the equi-join attribute of S is the primary key?
836
837 (a) 1,000 (b) 10,000
838
839
840
841
8422. Consider a schedule S1 given below;
843
844R1(A); W1(A); R2(B); R2(A); R1(B); W2(A+B); W1(B); where R1 and W1 are read and write operations of transaction T1 and R2 and W2 are read and write operations of transaction T2.
845
846Which of the following is correct regarding schedule S1?
847
848 (a) S1 is a serializable schedule (b) A deadlock will occur if 2PL is used
849
850 (c) S1 is a conflict serializable schedule (d) S1 is a view serializable schedule
851
852
8533. Consider a relation R (A, B). If A B is a trivial functional dependency and A is the super key for R, then what is the maximum normal form R can be in?
854
855 (
856
857 (c) BCNF
858
859
8604. Which of the following is a disadvantage of file processing system?
861
862(I) Efficiency of high level programming,
863
864(II) Data Isolation
865
866(III) Integrity issues
867
868(IV) Storing of records as files
869
870 (a) I only (b) III only
871
872 (c) II and III only==answer (d) II and IV only
873
874
8755. The data manipulation language used in SQL is a,
876
877(I) Procedural DML
878
879 (IV) Declarative
880
881DML
882
883
884(a) I and II only (b) III and IV only
885
886 (c) II and IV only (d) I and IV only
887
888 6. Which of the following is not a function of a DBA?
889
890 (a) Table creation (b) Index creation
891
892 (c) User creation (d) Application creation==answer
893
894
8957. Assume a relation R with keys X, Y and Z, where X, Y, and Z are sets of one or more attributes. Also assume that Y is a subset or equal to X and Z is a subset of X and Y. Which of the following is true for this case?
896
897 (b) Y and Z are the candidate keys of R
898
899
900
901
9028. Assume relations R and S with the schemas R (A, B, C) and S (B, D). Which of the following is equivalent to r � s?
903
904 (a) r.B = s.B (r � s) (b) r.A, r.B, r.C, s.D ( r.B = s.B (r x s))
905 (c) r.A, r.B, s.B, r.C, s.D ( r.B = s.B (r x s)) (d) r.A, r.B, s.B, r.C, s.D ( r.B = s.B (r � s))
906
907
9089. Consider a relational table with the schema R (A, B, C). Assume that the cardinality of attribute A is 10, B is 20, and C is 5. What is the maximum number of records R can have without duplicate?
909
910
911
912 (c) 1000
913
914
91510. Which of the following operator in SQL would produce the following result if applied between two relations Employee and Department?
916
917 Eno EName DeptNo DName
918
919 111 Kumar 100 Sales
920
921 222 Steve 200 Finance
922
923 Null Null 300 Admn
924
925 244 Meera 400 Mktg
926
927
928 (a) Outer Join
929
930
931
932
933
934
93511. Consider the schedules given below. All of them involving at least three transactions. The read operation on a data item x is represented as ri(x) and a write operation is represented as wi(x) where i is the transaction number. Which one of them is conflict serializable?
936
937 (b) r2(x), w2(x), r3(x), r1(x), w1(x)
938
939
940
941
94212. Consider a disk with following specification; sector size - 512 bytes, tracks per surface - 2000, sectors per track - 60, double-sided platters - 4, and average seek time - 20 msec. For a 5400 rpm hard disk for one revolution, if a single track of data can be transferred, then what is the transfer rate?
943
944 (a) 2727 Kbytes/second
945
946
947
948
94913. Assume that a table CUSTOMER has 10000 records. If the block size 1024 bytes and the record size is 80 bytes, how many records can be stored in each block to achieve maximum performance and how many blocks are required to store the entire table?
950
951 (a) 12, 834
952
953
954
955
95614. Consider a relation R (A, B, C, D, E) with set of functional dependencies F = {A BC, CD E, B D, E A}. Which of the following is one of the candidate keys of R?
957
958
959
960
961
962 (c) E
963
964
96515. Given R = ABCDEFGH and set of functional dependencies F = {BH C, BH F, E F, A D,
966F A, BH E, C E, F D}, which of the following is redundant set of functional dependencies?
967
968 (a) BH C, F D, F A (b) BH C, F D, BH E
969
970 (c) BH E, A D, F D (d) BH C, A D, BH E
971
972
97316. Assume a relation ACCOUNT (acno, balance, type, branch, last_accessed) with 1 million records. If a SQL query �SELECT balance FROM account WHERE balance>5000� would produce 800000 records, which one of the following is the optimized version of relational algebra expressions that is equivalent to the given SQL query?
974
975 (b) �balance>5000 (Πbalance (account))
976
977
978
979
980
98117. Consider the ER diagram given below;
982
983If depositor is a one-to- many relationship from account to customer, then this ER diagram can be reduced to which of the following relational schemas?
984
985 (a) Customer (customer-name, customer- (b) Customer (customer-name, customer-
986 street, customer-city, account-number) street, customer-city, account-number)
987 Account(account-number, balance) Account(account-number, balance,
988 customer-name)
989 Depositor (customer-name, account-
990 number)
991
992 (c) Customer (customer-name, customer- (d) Customer (customer-name, customer-
993 street, customer-city) street, customer-city)
994 Account(account-number, balance) Account(account-number, balance,
995 Depositor (customer-name, account- customer-name)
996 number)
997 18. The conjunctive selection operation Ã�θ1�θ2 ( E) is equivalent to __________
998
999
1000 (c)
1001 Ã�θ1(Ã�θ2(E))
1002
1003
100419. Assume a table Employee (Eno, Ename, Dept, Salary, Phone) with 10000 records. Also assume that Employee has a non-clustering index on Salary, clustering indexes on Dept and
1005
1006Phone. If there is a SQL query �SELECT Eno FROM Employee WHERE Salary/12 = 10000�, which of the following will happen during query execution?
1007
1008 (a) Query will use index of Salary
1009
1010
1011
1012
101320. Which of the following concurrency control mechanisms insist unlocking of all read and write locks of transactions at the end of commit?
1014
1015
1016
1017
1018 (d) Rigorous 2 Phase Locking
1019
1020
1021DBMS MCQs
1022
10232. What are the desirable properties of a transaction?
1024
1025B) Atomicity, consistency, isolation, durability
1026
10273. If a transaction T has obtained an exclusive lock on item Q, then T can A) read Q B) write Q C) both read and write== answer
1028D) write Q but not read Q
1029
10304. If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching tuples of both R and S are ignored in
1031 D) inner join
1032
10335. The FD A � B , DB� C implies
1034
1035A) DA� C
1036
10373. The process of analyzing the given relation schemas based on their functional dependencies is known as
1038
1039 B) normalization
1040
10414. Block-interleaved distributed parity is RAID level
1042 (D) 5.
1043
10447. Maximum height of a B+ tree of order m with n key values is A) Logm(n) B) (m+n)/2 C) Logm/2(m+n) D)is answer== None of these
1045
10468. What operator performs pattern matching?
1047
1048
1049A) LIKE
10509. Manager�s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
1051
1052(F) External level data hiding
1053
10544. Which of the following statements is false? Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
1055
1056A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
1057A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
1058A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation. ==false==answer
10595. A clustering index is created when _______. foreign key ordered
1060
1061
10626. Which of the following is not a consequence of non-normalized
1063
1064database? D)
1065
1066Lost update problem
1067
10687. An ER Model includes
1069
1070I. An ER diagram portraying entity types.
1071
1072II. Attributes for each entity type
1073
1074III. Relationships among entity types.
1075
1076
1077IV. Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the ER diagram.
1078
1079(A) I, II, III & IV== answer (B) I & IV
1080
1081(C) I, II & IV (D) I & III
1082
10835. If the closure of an attribute set is the entire relation then the attribute set is a A) Super key
1084
10856. Which of the following are the advantages of DBMS?
1086
1087A) Redundancy is controlled B) unauthorized access is restricted C) enforce integrity constraints D) all of these==answer
1088
10892 Division operation is ideally suited to handle queries of the type :
1090
1091
1092a) customers who have an account at all branches in Delhi.
10933 Which of the following is true ?
1094I. Implementation of self-join is possible in SQL with table alias.
1095
1096II. Outer-join operation is basic operation in relational algebra.
1097
1098III. Natural join and outer join operations are equivalent.
1099
1100b) I and II are correct. (B) II and III are correct.
1101
1102e) Only III is correct. (D) Only I is correct.== answer
11039. What kind of mechanism is to be taken into account for converting a weak entity
1104
1105set into strong entity set in entity-relationship diagram ?
1106 (D) Adding suitable attributes
1107
110819. The best normal form of relation scheme R (A, B, C, D) along with the set of functional
1109
1110dependencies F = {AB �C, AB � D, C � A, D � B} is
1111
1112 (D) First Normal form
1113
111412. Identify the minimal key for relational scheme R(A, B, C, D, E) with functional dependencies F = {A � B, B � C, AC � D}
1115
1116(A) A
1117
111814. _____ users work on canned transactions
1119
1120 b. naïve
1121
112215. If a hospital has to store the description of each visit of a patient according to date what attribute you will use in the patient entity type?
1123a. Composite
1124
112516. Passing the request from one schema to another in DBMS architecture is called as
1126
1127___________________
1128
1129a. Mapping
1130
113117. _______________________gives the concepts to describe the structure of the database.
1132
1133a. Data Model
1134
11355. __________is the description of the database
1136
1137a. schema
1138
113918. The advantage of DBMS over file systems is
1140
1141 c. multiple user
1142
1143
114419. Changing the conceptual schema without having to change the external schema is called as
1145
1146__________________
1147
1148a) physical data independence
1149
115020. ____________is the first schema to be designed when you are developing a DBMS
1151
1152a) conceptual
1153
115420. Creating a B Tree index for your database has to specify in
1155
1156_____. a. DDL
1157
115821. DBMS cannot be classified on
1159
1160 d) Concurrency level
1161
116221. _________________________attribute is used when the values are not divisible
1163
1164a) Simple
1165
1166(E) Which of this is not a implementation data model
1167
1168a. a. UML
1169
1170(F) The relationship that exists within the same entity type is called as _________
1171
1172relationship.
1173 b. recursive
1174
1175e) Adding a new column to a table comes in a. a. DDL
1176
1177f) To change the access path programs are categorized under __________ data independence.
1178
1179a.
1180Physical
1181
118216. The data type describing the types of values that can appear in each column is called
1183
1184______________________.
1185
1186
1187
1188a. Domin
1189
1190
1191
11927. The set of all attributes of a relation is called default _____________.
1193
1194 b. Super Key
1195
1196b Minimal super key of a relation is called _______________.
1197
1198a. Primary Key
1199
120019. R has n tuples and S has m tuples, then the Cartesian product of R and S will produce
1201
1202___________ tuples.
1203
1204 b. n*m
1205
1206_________________ constraint is specified between two relations and is used to
1207
1208 maintain the
1209
1210consistency among tuples of the two relations
1211
1212a c. referential
1213
1214
1215b) In Relational model, the table is called a _______________.
1216
1217 d. Relation
121822. The combination of selection and Cartesian product operators is
1219____________ operator
1220 c. Join
1221
1222
1223
1224e) The attributes in foreign key and primary key have the same ____________.
1225
1226a. Number of tuples
1227
122824. ______________ join requires that the two join attributes have the same name in both
1229
1230relations.
1231
1232 b. Equi join
1233
1234The expected size of the join result divided by the maximum size is
1235
1236 called _________________.
1237
1238a. Join cardinality
1239
1240
1241
1242ITE303- Data Communication and Computer Networks
1243
12446. Error correction and error detection happens in ___________
1245Data link layer
1246
12477. _________ uses reliable message stream.
1248Connection oriented
1249X.25 Networks is ________
1250Packet switched
1251
12528. ATM uses a ____ packet size Fixed 53byte
12539. Switch works in ____ layer of OSI model. 2,3
1254
1255
1256
125710. Elements in network core:
1258
1259
1260
1261(A) Applications
12622 Each router must implement some queuing discipline. Queuing allocates _____
1263
1264(C) Bandwidth
1265
12663 In _____ mechanism arriving packets get dropped when queue is full regardless of flow or importance
1267
1268(C) Drop tail
1269
1270
12714 Mapping from ASCII strings to binary network address is done by __________
1272
1273(C) DNS
1274
1275
12765 Network Interface card contains _________
1277(C) Port no.
1278
12796 In datagram network packets typically routed using destination ___
1280
1281(C) IP address
1282
12837 In dynamic routing mechanism the route changes in response to _______
1284
1285(C) link cost changes
1286
1287
1288
1289
12908. In ____________ least cost paths from one node is computed
1291Dijkstra algo
1292
12939. A backbone network that connects LANs in several buildings is sometimes referred to as a
1294
1295campus-wide network
1296
129710. ______ operate at the network layer, connecting two or more network segments that use the same or different data link layer protocols, but the same network layer protocol.
1298 Bridges
129911. The ______connects different backbone networks together
1300
1301core layer
1302
130312. TCP manages a point-to-point and _______ connection for an application between two computers
1304half duplex
1305
130613. A virtual circuit connection consists of two endpoints. Each endpoint is a pair of integers
1307 port socket,
1308
1309
1310
1311
13124 UDP has a smaller overhead then TCP, especially when the total size of the messages is
1313a) Small
13145 Reliability in network is directly proportional to ____
1315a) Routing
13161. How switching is performed in the internet?
1317
13187. Datagram approach to circuit switching at data link layer
1319
13208. Virtual circuit approach to message switching at network layer
13219. Datagram approach to message switching at datalink layer
132210. Datagram approach to packet switching at network layer.
13232. A telephone switch is a good example of which of the following types of switches.
1324
13258. packet
1326
13279. buffer
132810. fabric
132911. circuit ==answer
13303. A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If the
1331
1332output bit-string after stuffing is 01111100101, then the input bit-string is
1333
133410. 0111110100
1335
133611. 0111110101
133712. 0111111101
133813. 0111111111
13394. In the following pairs of OSI protocol layer/sub-layer and its functionality, the
1340
1341INCORRECT pair is
1342
134310. Network layer and Routing
1344
134511. Data Link Layer and Bit synchronization ==answer
134612. Transport layer and End-to end process communication
134713. Medium Access Control sub-layer and Channel sharing
1348
1349
13505. Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to resolve one form of address to another one?
1351
1352
135313. DHCP
1354
13556. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, respectively are
1356
1357
135815. UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP
1359
1360
13617. Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic mail?
1362
1363SMTP
1364
1365
13668. In one of the pairs of protocols given below, both the protocols can use multiple TCP connections between the same client and the server. Which one is that?
1367
136815. HTTP,FTP
1369
1370
1371
13729. The protocol data unit (PDU) for the application layer in the Internet stack is
1373Message
1374
1375
137610. In an Ethernet local area network, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
1377
1378A}The exponential backoff mechanism reduces the probability of collision on retransmissions.
1379
1380
138111. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class C addresses
1382
1383is
1384
13852to the power21
1386
1387
138812. Which one of the following fields of an IP header is NOT modified by a typical IP router?
1389
1390
1391Source address
1392
1393
139413. If a class B network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, what is the maximum number of hosts per subnet?
1395
13962046
1397
139814. Assume that source S and destination D are connected through two intermediate routers labeled R. Determine how many times each packet hasto visit the network layer and the data link layer during a transmission from S to D.
1399
1400Network layer � 4 times and Data link layer-6 times
1401
140215. Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network by a host when a browser requests a webpage from a remote server, assuming that the host has just been restarted.
1403
1404DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request
1405
140616. An IP router with a Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of 1500 bytes has received an IP packet of size 4404 bytes with an IP header of length 20 bytes. The values of the relevant fields in the header of the third IP fragment generated by the router for this packet are
1407
1408(G) MF bit: 0, Datagram Length: 1444; Offset: 370
1409
1410
1411
141217. One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the Time to Live (TTL) field. Which of the following statements best explains the need for this field?
1413
1414
1415g) It can be used to prevent packet
1416
1417looping
1418
141918. Using public key cryptography, X adds a digital signature � to message M, encrypts <M, � >, and sends it to Y, where it is d
1420
1421ecrypted. Which one of the following sequences of keys is used for the operations?
1422
1423
14248. Encryption: X�s private key followed by Y�s private key; Decryption: X�s public key followed by Y�s public key
1425
14269. Encryption: X�s private key followed by Y�s public key; Decryption: X�s public key followed by Y�s private key
1427
142810. Encryption: X�s public key followed by Y�s private key; Decryption: Y�s public key followed by X�s private key
1429
143011. Encryption: X�s private key followed by Y�s public key; Decryption: Y�s private key followed by X�s public key ==answer
1431
1432
1433
143419. Suppose that everyone in a group of N people wants to communicate secretly with N-1 others using symmetric key cryptographic system. The communication between any two persons should not be decodable by the others in the group. The number of keys required in the system as a whole to satisfy the confidentiality requirement is
1435
1436
1437c N(N-1)/2
1438
1439
144020. A layer -4 firewall (a device that can look at all protocol headers up to the transport layer)
1441
1442CANNOT
1443
1444c) block entire HTTP traffic during 9:00PM and 5:00AM
1445
1446d) block all ICMP traffic
1447e) stop incoming traffic from a specific IP address but allow outgoing traffic to the same IP address
1448
1449f) block TCP traffic from a specific user on a multi-user system during 9:00PM and 5:00AM
1450
1451
1452In Circuit Switching, resources need to be reserved during the .
1453b) Setup phase
1454
1455
1456
1457g) The resources needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of session between end systems in ________
1458
1459
1460Circuit switching
1461
1462
1463
14643.If message in Segmentation and Reassembly (SAR) sub layer of Application Adaptation Layer 3/4 has value of Segment type is 11 then it is called a
1465
146611. Beginning message
1467
146812. Ending message
146913. Single-segment message
147014. Middle message
1471
1472
1473 Congestion control and quality of service is qualities of the a) ATM
1474
1475
1476
147714. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called.........
1478
1479(A) UDP addresses
1480
1481
148215. UDP uses........ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one
1483
1484host.
1485
148615. Multiplexing
1487
1488
14897. The ......... protocol defines a set of messages sent over either User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port53 or Transmission Control Protocol(TCP) port53.
1490
1491
1492
14932 DNS
1494
149516. Which type of error detection uses binary division?
1496a) Cyclic redundancy checking
149717. When a network interface has a failure in its circuitry, it sends a continuous stream of frames causing the Ethernet LAN to enter a Collapse state. This condition is known as
1498__________.
1499
1500
1501Jabbering
1502
1503e) Value of checksum must be recalculated regardless of
1504
1505Fragmentation
1506
1507f) Dotted-decimal notation of 10000001 00001011 00001011 11101111 would be
1508v)
1509vi) 129.11.11.239
1510vii)
1511viii)
1512
1513e)
1514Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
1515a)
1516
1517b)
1518
1519c) Telnet
1520
1521
1522
1523f) These networking classes encapsulate the "socket" paradigm pioneered in the (BSD) Give the abbreviation of BSD?
1524
1525a) Berkeley Software Distribution
1526
1527
1528
1529g) Digital signature envelope is decrypted by using _________.
1530
1531Payment�s Private Key.
1532
1533h) The processed S/MIME along with security related data is called as ________. Public Key Cryptography Standard.
1534
153519. ___________ Substitution is a process that accepts 48 bits from the XOR operation.
1536
1537a. S-box.
1538
153920. In ������. Mode, the authentication header is inserted immediately after the
1540
1541IP header.
1542a. Tunnel
1543
154421. _________ uniquely identifies the MIME entities uniquely with reference to multiple contexts.
1545
1546a. Content-id.
1547
154822. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP
1549
1550connection?
1551
1552b) Transport Layer Security (TSL)
1553
1554
1555
155620. ------------- is a mode of operation for a block cipher, with the characteristic that each possible block of plaintext has a defined corresponding ciphertext value and vice versa.
1557
155820. Foot printin Hash Functio Water Mar
155921. Electronic Code Book
1560
1561
1562Multiple Choice Questions on Microprocessor & its peripherals
1563
15648086:
1565
156612. The 16 bit flag of 8086 microprocessor is responsible to indicate ___________
1567
1568the condition of result of ALU operation
1569
15702. The BIU contains FIFO register of size __________ bytes
1571
1572 B. 6
1573
1574
1575
1576The _________ translates a byte from one code to another 3. code
1577
1578A.
1579
1580XLAT
1581
1582
1583
15844. A 20-bit address bus allows access to a memory of capacity
1585
1586A. 1
1587MB
1588
1589
1590
15915. If the offset of the operand is stored in one of the index registers, then it is
1592
1593
1594indexed addressing mode
15952. Which of the following is not a data copy/transfer instruction?
1596
1597
1598DAS
1599
16007. Match the following
1601
1602a) MOvSB/SW 1) loads AL/AX register by content of a string
1603
1604b) CMPS 2) moves a string of bytes stored in source to destination
1605
1606c) SCAS 3) compares two strings of bytes or words whose length is stored in CX
1607
1608register
1609
1610d) LODS 4) scans a string of bytes or words
1611
1612a-2,b-3,c-4,d-1
1613
16147. 20. NOP instruction introduces
1615
1616Delay
1617
1618
1619
16208255 (Programmable Input � Output Port)
1621
16226 All the functions of the ports of 8255 are achieved by programming the bits of an internal register called
1623
1624
1625a) control word register
1626
162711. The data bus buffer is controlled by
1628
1629
1630a) read/write control logic
1631
1632
163314. The port that is used for the generation of handshake lines in mode 1 or mode 2 is port C Upper
1634
16358257 ( DMA Controller)
1636
163714. In 8257 (DMA), each of the four channels has
1638
1639a pair of two 16-bit registers
1640
1641The common register(s) for all the four channels of 8257 are
1642a)
1643b)
1644c) mode set register and status register
1645
1646
1647
16486 In 8257 register format, the selected channel is disabled after the terminal count condition is reached when
1649
1650a) TC STOP bit is set
165115. The pin that requests the access of the system bus is
1652
1653
1654
165519. HRq
1656
16578254 (Programmable Interval Timer)
1658
165920. The number of counters that are present in the programmable timer device 8254 is
1660
1661a)
1662b)
1663c) 3
1664d)
166521. The mode that is used to interrupt the processor by setting a suitable terminal count is
1666a. mode 0
1667
166822. In control word register, if SC1=0 and SC0=1, then the counter selected is
1669
1670a)
1671b) counter 1
1672c)
167323. The counter starts counting only if b. GATE signal is high
1674
167525. The result of MOV AL, 65 is to store A. store 0100 0010 in AL B. store 42H in AL
1676
1677a)
1678
1679b) store 0100 0001 in AL
1680
168126. One operation that is not given by magnitude comparator
1682(K) addition
16832. Adding 1001 and 0010 gives output of
1684
1685
1686
1687A. 1011
1688
1689
1690
1691
16923. Magnitude comparator compares using operation of
1693
169412. addition
1695
169613. subtraction
169714. division
169815. multiplication
1699
17004. A Boolean function may be transformed into
1701
1702g logical diagram
1703
1704
1705
17065. Is it possible to find two algebric expressions that specify same function
1707
1708g) no
1709
1710h) yes
1711i) maybe
1712j) never
1713
17146. Using 10's complement 72532- 3250 is
1715
1716h) 69282
1717
1718
17197. X=1010100 and Y=1000011 using 2's complement X-Y is
1720
1721
172215. 10001
1723
17248. X=1010100 and Y=1000011 using 1's complement Y-X is
1725
1726-10001
1727
1728
17299. Table that is not a part of asynchronous analysis procedure
1730
1731
173219. excitation table
1733
1734
173510. Shift registers are used for
1736
17376 shifting
1738
17397 rotating
17408 adding
17419 both a and b ==answer
1742
1743
174411. Two variables will be represented by
1745
1746
174718. four minterms
1748
1749 Adjacent squares represents a
1750
1751v) circle
1752
1753vi) variable
1754vii) literal
1755viii) minterm
1756
175713. Eight minterms will be used for
1758
1759g) three variables
1760
1761
176214. Minterms are arranged in map in a sequence of
1763
1764
1765
1766ix) gray code
1767
176815. A circuit that converts n inputs to 2^n outputs is called
1769
1770A. encoder
1771
1772
1773
1774
177516. Encoders are made by three
1776
1777
1778
1779OR gate
1780
1781
1782Decoder is a
1783
178421. combinational circuit
1785
1786
1787
1788. BCD to seven segment is a
1789
179021.
1791
179222. decoder
179323.
179424.
1795
179619. One that is not type of flipflop is
1797
179822.
1799
180023.
180124.
180225. ST
1803
180420. Flip-flops can be constructed with two
1805
180623. NAND gates
1807
1808
180921. RS flip-flops are also called
1810
18112 RS latch
1812
1813
1814
181522. Decimal digit in BCD can be represented by
1816
18174 input lines
1818
1819
182023. In BCD no. 1010 has
1821
1822
1823no meaning
1824
1825
182624. To perform product of maxterms Boolean function must be brought into
1827
1828
1829E. or terms
1830
183125. In excitation table of D flipflop next state is equal to
1832
1833
1834
1835E. next state
1836
1837
183826. X+y=z represents operation that is
1839
1840E. AND
1841
1842F. OR
1843G. NOT
1844H. XOR
184527. Design procedure of combinational circuit involves
1846
1847E. 4 steps
1848
1849
185028. In design procedure input output values are assigned with
1851
1852A. numeric values
1853
1854
1855E. letter symbols
1856
1857F. 0's
1858G. 1's
1859
1860
186129. Output of AND gates in SOP is connected to
1862
1863A.
1864
1865B. OR gates
1866C.
1867D.
186830. Mod-6 and mod-12 counters are most commonly used in:
1869A. digital clocks
1870
187131. How many illegitimate states has synchronous mod-6 counter ? A.3
1872
1873
187432. The clock signals are used in sequential logic circuits to
1875D.Synchronize events in various parts of system
1876
187733. To build a mod-19 counter the number of flip-flops required is
1878 B.5
1879
1880
1881
188233. The main difference between JK and RS flip-flop is that
1883C. JK flip-flop accepts both inputs as 1
1884
1885
188634. Which of the following unit will choose to transform decimal number to binary code ?
1887
1888
1889A.Encode r
1890C.Multiplexer
1891
1892D.Counter
1893
189435. Simplified form of the boolean expression (X + Y + XY) (X + Z) is
1895 C.X + YZ
1896
189736. Which of the following boolean expressions is not logically equivalent to all of the rest ?
1898
1899A.ab + (cd)' + cd + bd'
1900
1901 B.a (b + c) + cd
1902
1903C.ab + ac + (cd)'
1904
1905D.bd' + c'd' + ab + cd
1906
190737. Which of the following statements is true ? A.(A + B) (A + C) = AC + BC
1908
1909B.(A + B) (A + C) = AB + C
1910
1911C.(A + B) (A + C) = A + BC
1912
1913D.(A + B) (A + C)= AC + B
1914
191538. A graphical display of the fundamental products in a truth-table is known as D.karnaugh-map
191639. The minimum number of NAND gates required to implement the Boolean function. A + AB' + AB'C is equal to
1917
1918A.zero
1919
1920
1921
192240. Which of the following logic expression is incorrect?
1923A.1 � 0 = 1
1924
1925B.1 � 1 � 0 =1==answer C.1 � 1 � 1 = 1 D.1 � 1 = 0
1926
1927
1928Data Structures and Algorithms
1929
19301. In a min-heap:
1931
1932 B - parent nodes have values less than or equal to their children
1933
1934
19352 - Minimum number of moves required to solve a Tower of Hanoi puzzle is C � 2^ n - 1
19363. Which of the following asymptotic notation is the worst among all?
1937
1938B - �(n ^3)
1939
1940
1941
19424.Maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph of vertices n is D - n � 1
1943
19445.Which of the following algorithm is not stable? B - Quick Sort
1945
1946
1947
19486.Which of the following is example of in-place algorithm? A - Bubble Sort
1949
1950
1951
19527.After each iteration in bubble sort
1953
1954A - at least one element is at its sorted position.
1955
1956
1957
19588. Time required to merge two sorted lists of size m and n, is
1959C - �mlogn
1960
1961
1962
19639.If queue is implemented using arrays, what would be the worst run time complexity of enqueue and dequeue operations?
1964
1965
1966
1967D - �1, �1
1968
196910. What happens when you push a new node onto a stack?
1970
1971A) The new node is placed at the front of the linked list
1972
1973
1974
1975
19766. A queue in which insertion and deletion takes places from any position is called ......
1977
1978
1979(G) priority
1980
1981
1982
198314. In Binary trees nodes with no successor are called ......
1984
1985
1986
19879. Terminal nodes
1988
1989
199013. The depth of complete binary tree is given by ......
1991
199210Dn = log2n+1
1993
199412. The post order traversal of binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal.
1995
1996
1997B. ABDECF
1998
1999
2000
200113. If every node u in G adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be
2002complete
2003
2004
2005
2006
200716. If CurrNode pointer points to the previous node in the list and NewNode points to the newly created Node, the address assignments to be done for inserting a node in the middle of a singly linked list is
2008
2009CurrNode->Next = NewNode; NewNode->Next = CurrNode->Next NewNode->Next = CurrNode->Next; CurrNode->Next = NewNode; CurrNode->Next = NewNode->Next; NewNode->Next = CurrNode; CurrNode = NewNode
2010
201117. Identify the sorting technique that supports divide and conquer strategy and has (n2) complexity in worst case
2012
2013Insertion Shell Merge Quick==answer
2014
201517. The run time of the following algorithm is Procedure A(n)
2016If(n<=2) return(1) Else return(A(sqrt(n)) c) O(loglogn)
2017
201818. For non-negative functions, f(n) and g(n), f(n) is theta of g(n) if and only if
2019
20207 f(n) = O(g(n)) and f(n) = Ω(g(n))
2021
2022
2023
202422. The degree of a leaf node is:
2025
2026b) 0
2027
2028
2029
2030
2031
2032Data Structures and Algorithms
2033
20341. In a min-heap:
2035
2036 B - parent nodes have values less than or equal to their children
2037
2038
20392 - Minimum number of moves required to solve a Tower of Hanoi puzzle is
2040C � 2^ n-1
2041
20423. Which of the following asymptotic notation is the worst among all?
2043
2044D � 2^�n
2045
20464.Maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph of vertices n is D - n
2047
2048� 1
2049
20505.Which of the following algorithm is not stable?
2051
2052B - Quick Sort
2053
2054
2055
20566.Which of the following is example of in-place algorithm? A - Bubble Sort
2057
2058
2059
20607.After each iteration in bubble sort
2061
2062A - at least one element is at its sorted position.
2063
2064B - one less comparison is made in the next iteration. C - Both A & B are true.==answer
2065
2066D - Neither A or B are true
2067
2068
2069
20708. Time required to merge two sorted lists of size m and n, is
2071
2072B - �m + n
2073
2074
2075
20769.If queue is implemented using arrays, what would be the worst run time complexity of enqueue and dequeue operations?
2077
2078A - �n, �n
2079
2080
2081
208210. What happens when you push a new node onto a stack? A. The new node is placed at the front of the linked list
2083
2084
208511. A queue in which insertion and deletion takes places from any position is called ......
2086
2087
2088
2089B. priority
2090
2091
2092
209312. In Binary trees nodes with no successor are called ......
2094
2095
2096
2097A. Terminal nodes
2098
2099
2100
2101
210213. The depth of complete binary tree is given by .....
2103
210422. Dn = log2n+1
2105
2106
210723. The post order traversal of binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal.
2108
2109
2110G. ABDCEF
2111
211224. If every node u in G adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be
2113
211424.
2115
211625. complete
2117
211826.
2119
212016. If CurrNode pointer points to the previous node in the list and NewNode points to the newly created Node, the address assignments to be done for inserting a node in the middle of a singly linked list is
2121
2122 27. NewNode->Next = CurrNode->Next; CurrNode->Next = NewNode;
2123
212417. Identify the sorting technique that supports divide and conquer strategy and has (n2) complexity in worst case
2125
2126
2127
2128Quick
2129
2130(O) The run time of the following algorithm is Procedure A(n)
2131If(n<=2) return(1) Else return(A(sqrt(n))
2132c) O(loglogn)
2133
2134(P) For non-negative functions, f(n) and g(n), f(n) is theta of g(n) if and only if
2135
2136n) f(n) = O(g(n)) and f(n) = Ω(g(n))
2137
2138
213916. The degree of a leaf node is:
2140
21410
2142
2143Data Structures and Algorithms
2144
21451. Which among the following is not a linear data structure?
2146
2147a) Graphs
2148
2149l) For the given infix expression a+b^c*(d-e) where �^� denotes the EX-OR operator, the corresponding prefix expression is
2150
2151 c) ^+ab*c-de
2152
215319. Which of the following is termed as reverse polish notation?
2154
2155 d) Postfix Notation
21564. What does the code snippet given below do?
2157
2158void fun1(struct node* head)
2159
2160{
2161
2162if(head == NULL) return;
2163
2164fun1(head->next); printf("%d ", head->data);
2165
2166}
2167
2168
2169
2170b)Prints all nodes of linked list in reverse order
2171
21725. Given the following structure template, choose the correct syntax for accessing the 5th subject marks of the 3rd student.
2173
2174struct stud
2175
2176{
2177
2178int marks[6];
2179
2180char sname[20]; char rno[10];
2181
2182}s[10];
2183
2184 c) s[2].marks[4]
2185
21866. What is the postfix expression for the following infix expression? Infix = a+b%c>d
2187
2188 d) abc%+d>
2189
21907. Among the following which is not the application of a stack?
2191
2192 b) Job scheduling
2193
219420. Which of the following is not correct to create an integer array of size 20?
2195
2196(A)
2197
2198(B) int *a= (int*) malloc(80) ;
2199
2200
2201
22029. If a , b , c, are three nodes connected in sequence in a singly linked list struct node *temp=a;
2203
2204while(temp!=NULL)
2205
2206{
2207
2208temp=temp->next; printf( �$�);
2209
2210}Assuming �c� to be the last node, the output is
2211
2212 b) $$
2213
221423. You are given pointers to first and last nodes of a singly linked list, which of the following operations are dependent on the length of the linked list?
2215
2216
2217
2218a) Delete the last element of the list
2219
2220
222111. On adopting shell sort technique, the output of the array (21,62,14,9,30,77,80,25) after a pass with increment size =3, is
2222
2223
222410 9 30 14 21 25 77 80 62
2225
222611 9 25 14 21 30 77 80 62
2227
222812 9 14 21 25 30 62 77 80==answer
2229
223013 the same array
2231
223212. Consider a dynamic queue with two pointers: front and rear. What is the time needed to insert an element in a queue of length of n?
2233
2234a) O(log2n)
2235
223622. If a , b , c, are three nodes connected in sequence in a singly linked list, what is the statement to be added to change this into a circular linked list?
2237
2238 c) c->next=a
2239
2240ix) In which of the following hashing methods, the below expression is used to find the home address, given a 6-digit number as the key.
2241
2242Sum=key%100+(key/100)%100+(key/10000).
2243
2244 b) Key offset
2245
2246xiii) Which sorting technique uses a data structure similar to the one used in bucket hashing?
2247
2248d) Radix
2249
225016. For the array (77 ,62,114,80,9,30,99), write the order of the elements after two passes using the Radix sort.
2251
2252
2253 b) 114 30 62 77 9 99
2254
2255
2256
2257
2258
225917. Which of these is asymptotically bigger?
2260
2261 c) 6*2n
2262
2263l) If a[ ] is the array containing the elements to be sorted using radix sort, during the first iteration in which the LSD is considered, row number in 2D array to which an element
2264has to be stored is given by
2265
2266a) a[i]/10%10
2267
226819. temp=root->left;
2269
2270while(temp->right!=NULL)
2271
2272temp=temp->right;
2273
2274return temp;
2275
2276The above code snippet for a BST with the address of the root node in pointer
2277
2278�root�
2279
2280returns
2281
228227. Inorder successor of the root
2283
2284
2285
228628. For a tree which has no right subtree, if the inorder sequence is DBEA, its preorder sequence cannot be
2287
2288D) ABED
2289
22901. When determining the efficiency of algorithm, the space
2291factor is measured by
229225. Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm
2293
2294
2295
2296
22972. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
2298
2299
2300
230126. O(n2)
2302
2303
2304
23053. Linked lists are best suited
2306
230727. for relatively permanent collections of data
2308
230928. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing
2310
2311for both of above situation 6 for none of above situation
2312
23134. If the values of a variable in one module is indirectly changed by another module, this situation is called
2314
2315 side effect
2316
23175. In linear search algorithm the Worst case occurs when
2318
2319The item is not in the array at all
2320
2321
23226. For an algorithm the complexity of the average case is
2323
2324Much more complicated to analyze than that of worst case Much more simpler to analyze than that of worst case
2325
2326Sometimes more complicated and some other times simpler than that of worst case None or above
23277. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is
2328
2329O(n) O(log n) O(n2) O(n log n)
2330
23318. The complexity of linear search algorithm is
2332
2333 O(n2)
2334
23359. When determining the efficiency of algorithm the time factor is measured by
2336
2337
2338Counting the number of key operations
2339
234010. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure?
2341
2342
2343Arrays
2344
2345
2346
234711. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because
2348
2349by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element and the addresses of other elements can be calculated
23502 the architecture of computer memory does not allow arrays to store other than serially
2351
23523 both of above ==answer
2353
23544 none of above
2355
2356
2357
235812. Which of the following data structure is not linear data
2359
2360structure?
2361
2362Arrays
2363
2364Linked lists
2365
2366Both of above
2367
2368None of above==answer
2369
237013. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm
2371
2372When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array
2373
237414. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are
2375
2376
2377
2378Time and space
2379
2380
2381
238215. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:
2383
2384
2385
2386Search
2387
238816. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory
2389
2390Null case
2391
239217. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as
2393
2394
2395
2396a. Traversal
2397
2398
2399
240018. Arrays are best data structures
2401
2402a. for relatively permanent collections of data
2403
2404
2405
240619. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about
2407
2408
2409
2410a. the first data from the set to be stored
2411
2412
2413
241420. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
2415
2416a.
2417
2418b. O(logn )
2419
242021. Which if the following is/are the levels of implementation of data structure
2421
2422A) Abstract level
2423
2424B) Application level
2425
2426C) Implementation level
2427
2428D) All of the above ==answer
2429
243022. A binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in hight by at most 1 unit is called ��
2431
2432A) AVL tree
2433
2434
243523. ������.. level is where the model becomes compatible executable code
2436
2437
2438A) Implementation level
2439
2440
2441
2442
2443
244424. Stack is also called as
2445
2446A) Last in first out
2447
2448
2449
245025. Which of the following is true about the characteristics of abstract data types?
2451
2452i) It exports a type.
2453
2454ii) It exports a set of operations A) True, False
2455B) False, True C) True, True==answerD) False, False
245626. ����� is not the component of data structure.
2457
2458
2459
2460A) Storage Structures
2461
2462
246327. Which of the following is not the part of ADT description?
2464
2465A) Data
2466
2467B) Operations
2468
2469C) Both of the above
2470
2471D) None of the above ==answer
2472
247328. Inserting an item into the stack when stack is not full is called
2474
2475����. Operation and deletion of item form the stack, when stack is not empty is called
2476
2477���..operation.
2478
2479A) push, pop
2480
2481
2482
248329. �����. Is a pile in which items are added at one end and removed from the other.
2484
2485B)
2486
2487C) Queue
2488
2489
2490
249130. ���� is very useful in situation when data have to stored and
2492
2493then retrieved in reverse order.
2494
2495A) Stack
2496
2497
2498
249931. Which data structure allows deleting data elements from and inserting at rear?
2500
2501A)
2502
2503B) Queues
2504
2505
2506
250732. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?
2508
2509A) Arrays
2510
2511
2512
251333. A ....... is a data structure that organizes data similar to a line in the supermarket, where the first one in line is the first one out.
2514
2515A) Queue linked list
2516
2517
2518
251934. Which of the following is non-liner data structure?
2520
2521Trees
2522
252335. Herder node is used as sentinel in .....
2524
2525Binary tree
2526
252736. Which data structure is used in breadth first search of a graph to hold nodes?
2528
2529queue
2530
2531
2532
253337. Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one end.
2534
2535Input restricted dequeue
2536
2537
253838. Which of the following data structure is non linear type?
2539
2540Graph
2541
254239. Which of the following data structure is linear type?
2543
2544 Stack
254540. To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, Which data structure is suitable?
2546
2547
2548
2549Tree
2550
2551
2552
255341. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
2554
2555 O(n2)
2556
2557
255842. The data structure required to evaluate a postfix expression is
2559
2560stack
2561
256243. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called
2563
2564side effect
2565
256644. The process of accessing data stored in a serial access memory is similar to manipulating data on a
2567
2568 stack
2569
257045. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure?
2571
2572Arrays
2573
2574
2575
257646. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as
2577
2578 Traversal
2579
258047. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:
2581
2582Search
2583
258448. A BST is traversed in the following order recursively: Right, root, left
2585
2586The output sequence will be in
2587
2588 Descending order
2589
259049. Linked lists are best suited
2591
2592
2593
2594for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly
2595
2596Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about
2597
2598
2599the first data from the set to be stored
2600
2601OPERATING SYSTEMS
2602
26031. In the process state transition diagram, the transition from the READY state to the RUNNING state indicates that:
2604
2605
2606A process is done waiting for an I/O operation
2607
26082. Which of the following is shared between all of the threads in a process? Assume a kernel level thread implementation.
2609
2610
2611
2612File descriptors
2613
26143. Which of the following is not true?
2615
26169 Shortest Remaining Time next is the best preemptive scheduling algorithm in terms of turnaround time
261710Priority scheduling can suffer from starvation 11 Lottery scheduling is pre-emptive
2618
261912Multi-level feedback queue guarantee equal time to all processes ==answer
2620
2621 A critical region is
2622
262315. The part of a program in which shared data is accessed
2624
2625
26265. Which of the following is not used for synchronization?
2627
262811 The bakery algo
2629
263012The banker�s algorithm==answer
263113 Busy waiting with test and set 14Monitors
26326. Which of the following is not true of virtual memory?
2633
263414. It allows more efficient use of memory ==answer
2635
263615. It requires hardware support
263716. It reduces the need for relocatable code
263817. It requires the use of a disk or other secondary storage
26397. Which of the following is not usually stored in a two-level page table?
2640
2641Virtual page number
2642
2643
26448. Which of the following paging algorithms is most likely to be used in a virtual memory system?
2645
2646Least Frequently Used
2647
26489. The purpose of a TLB is
2649
2650To cache page translation information
2651
2652
2653
2654
265510. Which of the following is not true about segmented memory management?
265618. Segment length must be a multiple of the page size==answer
265719. Segmentation allows multiple linear address space in one process
265820. Segmentation can be used with paging to keep segments partially resident in memory
265921. A segment can be read-only for one process and read-write for another
2660
2661. System calls:
2662
2663Protect kernel data structures from user code
2664
2665
2666
266712. What is the main difference between traps and interrupts?
2668
266911 How they are initiated
2670
2671
267213. Buffering is useful because
2673
2674
2675It allows devices and thee CPU to operate asynchronously
267614. The main advantage of DMA is that it
2677
2678Increases system performance by increasing concurrency
2679
2680
2681
268215. Which of the following disk seek algorithms would be the best choice to implement in a system that services an average of 5 disk requests per second?
2683
2684FCFS
2685
2686
2687
268816. Which of the following disk seek algorithms has the most variability in response time?
2689
2690
2691
269228. SSTF
2693
2694
269517. A typical hard drive has a peak throughput of about
2696
2697
269830. 2 x 107 bytes per second
2699
2700
270118. RAID is a way to:
2702
2703
270426. Increase hard drive reliability and performance
2705
270619. Which of these would not be a good way for the OS to improve battery lifetime in a laptop?
2707
2708
2709Turn off power to the memory
2710
271120. Which of the following is not included in an inode in Linux?
2712
2713
2714
2715File name
2716
2717ITE208-Operating Systems
2718
2719Multiple Choice Questions
2720
27211.Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of __________
2722
2723FIFO
2724
2725
27262.A page fault occurs
2727
2728when the page is not in the memory
2729
27303.Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the following statements wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---
2731
2732;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above situation depicts a _________ .
2733
2734
2735k Deadlock
2736
2737
27384.What is a shell ?
2739
2740
2741k) It is a command interpreter
2742
2743
27445. Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________
2745
2746
2747m) Dynamic linking
2748
27496. In the blocked state
2750
2751the processes waiting for I/O are found==answer
2752the process which is running is found
2753the processes waiting for the processor are found the process ready to execute
2754What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ? Extended Memory
2755Normal Memory Low Memory Conventional ==answer
2756
2757
27588.Virtual memory is __________.
2759
2760
2761An illusion of extremely large main memory .
2762
27639.The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by __________.
2764
2765
2766System Call
2767
2768
276910.If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67.
2770
2771321
2772
277311.The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded Waiting.
2774
2775k) The statement is false
2776
2777l) The statement is true. ==answer
2778m) The statement is contradictory.
2779n) None of the above
278012.The problem of thrashing is effected scientifically by ________.
2781
2782Program structure
2783
2784
2785
278613.Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ?
2787
2788BAK
2789
279014.The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called
2791
2792_____________
2793
2794Demand Paging
2795
279615.Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called as __________.
2797
2798
2799
2800Context Switch
2801
28026.Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System?
2803
2804
280530. Tree directory structure
2806
2807
2808
280917. A thread
2810
281129. is a lightweight process where the context switching is low
2812
2813
281418.______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore.
2815
2816
2817Monitor
2818
281919. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
2820
2821dispatcher
2822
282320. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
2824
2825
2826
2827currently running process
2828
2829I. Assume that �C� is a Counting Semaphore initialized to value �10�. Consider the following program segment:
2830P(C); V(C); P(C); P(C); P(C); V(C); V(C) V(C); V(C); V(C); P(C); V(C); V(C); P(C) What is the value of C?
2831
2832
2833I. 10
2834I. Consider the following pseudo code fragment: printf (�Hello�); if(!
2835
2836for k(
2837
2838))
2839
2840pri ntf(
2841
2842�W
2843
2844orl
2845
2846d�);
2847
2848Which of the following is the output of the code fragment?
2849
2850Hello Hello World World
2851
2852Hello World World
2853Hello World
2854Hello World Hello World
2855I. A scheduling algorithm assigns priority proportional to the waiting time of a process. Every process starts with priority zero (the lowest). The scheduler re-valuates the process priorities every T time units and decides the next process to schedule. Which one of the following is true if the processes have
2856
2857no I/O operations and all arrive at time zero?
2858
2859
2860
2861This algorithm is equivalent to Round
2862
286311.The highest response ratio next Scheduling policy favors �X� jobs, but is also limits the waiting time of �Y� jobs. What are X and Y?
2864
2865Shorter Jobs, Longer Jobs
2866
28675. Which of the following instructions should be allowed only in Kernel Mode?
2868
2869E. Disable all interrupts
2870
2871F. Read the time-of-day clock
2872G. Set the time-of-day clock
2873H. Change the Memory Map
28745 Consider the below code fragment: if(fork k( ) = = 0)
2875{
2876
2877a= a+5; printf(�%d, %d n�, a, &a);
2878
2879}
2880
2881else
2882
2883{
2884
2885a= a � 5;
2886
2887printf(�%d %d n�, 0, &a);
2888
2889}
2890
2891Let u, v be the values printed by parent process and x, y be the values printed by child process. Which one of the following is true?
2892
2893A u= x + 10 and v = y
2894
2895B u= x + 10 and v�y
2896C u + 10= x and v = y
2897D u + 10= x and v �y
28982 There are �m� processes and �n� instances of a Resource provided. Each process needs �P� instances of the resource. In which case deadlock will never occur?
2899
2900A. (P - 1) m + 1 � n
2901
290232. A system has a resource �Z� with 20 instances; each process needs 5 instances to complete its execution. What is the minimum process in the system that may cause deadlock?
2903
2904A 5
290535. A solution to the Dining Philosopher�s problem which avoids Deadlock can be: Ensure that all the Philosopher�s pick up the left fork before the right fork Philosophers can select any fork randomly
2906Ensure that all the Philosophers except one pick up the left fork while
290737. Which of the process transition is invalid?
2908Run Ready
2909
2910Suspend wait Suspend ready
2911 Wait/ BlockRun==answer
2912Run Terminate
2913
291441. The process in which of the following states will be in secondary memory? New, Ready, Wait/Block
2915
2916New, Wait/Block, suspend wait, Suspend ready wait/Block, suspend wait, Suspend ready
2917
2918New, suspend wait, Suspend ready
2919e. Degree of multiprogramming is controlled by Long term schedule
2920
2921
2922e. Consider a system with �M� CPU processors and �N� processes then how many processes can
2923
2924be present in ready, running and blocked state at maximum
2925
2926N, M, N
2927
2928
2929d. The main function of dispatcher is: assigning ready process to the CPU
2930
2931
2932E) Consider �n� processes sharing the CPU in a round robin fashion. Assume that the context switch takes �s� seconds. What must be the quantum �q� such that the overhead of context switching is minimized and at same time each process is getting guaranteed execution on the
2933
2934CPU atleast once in every �t� seconds?
2935
2936q� (t � ns)/ (n-1)
2937
2938E) When two or more processes trying to execute a set of instructions and if the output depends on the order of execution of the process, this is termed as:
2939
2940Race condition
2941
2942
2943E) Consider the processes P1, P2, P3, P4 whose arrival times are 0, 2, 3, 5 and burst times are 7, 4, 2, 4 respectively. What is the average TAT and average WT if they follow Shortest
2944
2945Remaining Time First scheduling algorithm?
2946
29478.5, 3.5 8, 3.75 6, 3 4,5
2948
2949E) If =0.4 and T1=10. Consider the actual burst times of t1, t2, t3 are 5, 7, 2 respectively. What is the predicted burst time of t4 using Exponential Average method?
2950
29513.36
2952
29534.3
29545.36
2955
29566.66
2957
2958iii) In Multi-Processing Operating Systems: Maximum utilization of CPU can be achieved
2959
2960E) A system has �n� processes and each process need 2 instances of a resource. There are n+1 instances of resource provided. This could:
2961never leads to deadlock
2962
2963l
2964
2965WEB TECHNOLOGY
2966
296720. The following HTML element is used to display horizontal line
2968
2969
2970<hr>
2971
297211. The following HTML ________ element contains meta data which is not displayed inside the document.
2973
2974<title>
2975
297613 <h2 style="color:blue">I am Blue</h2> is ____ way of styling HTML elements
2977Inline style
2978
297917. The following HTML element helps making animated text
2980<marquee>
298114. <font face="Lucida Calligraphy,Comic Sans MS,Lucida Console"> will specify
2982______ font
2983
2984Lucida Calligraphy Lucida Console
2985
2986first available font installed on computer
2987
2988
298915 _____ is used to define a special CSS style for a group of HTML elements
2990
2991a) class attribute
2992b) name attribute
2993c) group attribute
2994d) id attribute
299518. The following HTML attribute is used to specify the URL of the html document to be opened when a hyperlink is clicked.
2996
2997HREF
2998
299916. Which of these will create a shuffled list?
3000<ul>
3001
300219. The _______ attribute defines the action to be performed when the form is submitted
3003onSubmit attribute
3004
300517. Internet backbone refers to _________
3006
3007
3008Data route
300922. ____________ is referred to as Static Web
3010a) Web 1.0
3011
301223. What does JSP stand for?
3013
3014
3015
3016Java Server Pages
3017
301815 How do you write "Hello World" in PHP?
3019
3020a) using echo("Hello World")
302127. What are the parameters of the service method?
3022
3023a) HttpServletRequest and HttpServletResponse
3024
3025
3026
3027
3028
302925. How does servlet differ from CGI?
3030a) Light weight Process
3031
303228. Which is the right declaration Tag in JSP? A. <%! ........ %>)
3033
3034
303532. The servlet life cycle has the following cycle.
3036
3037a. Init service destroy
3038
3039
304034. How many times service() method will be executed in a servlet life cycle?
3041
3042
3043a. As many as client requests
3044
304530. In HTTP, which method gets the resource as specified in the URI
3046a) GET
3047
3048
304929. Which of the following is not a session management technique in Servlet
3050
3051a. Password <form> field
3052
3053(Q) What should be the first tag in any HTML document?
3054
3055<html>
3056
3057
3058
30592. How can you make a bulleted list?
3060
3061<ul>
3062
306317. What is the correct HTML for making a hyperlink?
30641) <a href=�http:// mcqsets.com�>ICT Trends Quiz</a> ==answer
30652) <a name=� http://mcqsets.com�>ICT Trends Quiz</a>
30663) < http://mcqsets.com</a>
30674) url=� http://mcqsets.com�>ICT Trends Quiz
3068o Choose the correct HTML tag to make a text italic
3069
30702) <i>
3071o) What is the correct HTML for adding a background color?
3072
30732 <body bgcolor=�yellow�>
3074q) Which attribute is used to name an element uniquely?
3075
3076id
3077
307820. What is the full form of HTTP?
3079Hyper text transfer protocol Hyper text transfer package Hyphenation text test program
3080
3081(C) none of the above
308224. What is the correct way of describing XML data? c) XML uses XSL to describe the data
3083
3084
3085:
3086
3087
308814 Which of the following can't be done with client-side JavaScript?
3089
3090
3091d) Storing the form's contents to a database file on the server
3092
309327. What is the correct JavaScript syntax to write "Hello World"?
3094a) document.write("Hello World")
3095
3096xiv) What is the correct syntax for referring to an external script called "
3097abc.js"?
3098
3099 <script src=" abc.js">
3100
3101o) How to create a Date object in JavaScript? dateObjectName = new Date([parameters])
3102
3103xviii) <script type="text/javascript"> x=4+"4"; document.write(x);
3104
3105</script> Output------
3106
3107?
3108
310944
3110q) <script type="text/javascript"> var s = "9123456 or 80000?"; var pattern = /d{4}/;
3111
3112var output = s.match(pattern); document.write(output); </script>
3113
31149123
3115
3116
3117
311835. What makes Ajax unique?
3119
3120
3121
3122
3123a. It makes data requests asynchronously.
312431. What does the XMLHttpRequest object accomplish in Ajax? | Ajax a
3125
3126c) It provides the ability to asynchronously exchange data between Web browsers and a Web server.
3127
3128
3129
313032. AJAX made popular by | Ajax a d) Google
313118. Which one of the following function is used to start a session?
3132
3133
3134
3135a) session_start()
313611 If the directive session.cookie_lifetime is set to 3600, the cookie will live until..
3137
3138d) 3600 sec
3139
314032. When you want to store user data in a session use the . . . . array.
3141
3142a) $_SESSION
3143
31441. What does the following bit of JavaScript print
3145
3146out?
3147
3148
3149var a = [1,,3,4,5]; console.log([a[4], a[1], a[5]]);
3150
31515, undefined,undefined 5,3,undefined 5,0,undefined 5,null,undefined
3152
3153Web applications are frequently constructed as a distributed system utilizing a multitiered architecture with three tiers. They are:
3154
3155Browser, Server, Database
3156
3157Which selector is used by applying a specific style for a group of elements? a)class
3158
3159
3160
3161Which method is used to remove the first element of an Array object?
3162
3163
3164
3165c)shift()
3166
3167
3168
3169K. Which of these methods returns x ,rounded downwards to the nearest integer?
3170
3171b)floor()
3172
3173c
3174
3175
3176
3177J. Where in an HTML document is the correct place to refer to an external style sheet?
3178
3179In the <head> section
3180
3181Which is the correct CSS syntax? body:color=black {body;color:black} {body:color=black(body} body {color: black} ==answer
3182
3183What is the correct CSS syntax for making all the <p> elements bold?
3184
3185I. <p style="text-size:bold">
3186J. <p style="font-size:bold">
3187K. p {font-weight:bold} ==answer
3188L. p {text-size:bold}
3189
3190To link your Web page to a style sheet, you must use the _____ tag. <STYLESHEET>
3191
3192<STYLE>
3193<LINK>
3194
3195<WEB>
319610.How can you create an e-mail link?
3197
3198I. <a href="mailto:xxx@yyy"> ==answer
3199
3200J. <mail href="xxx@yyy">
3201K. <mail>xxx@yyy</mail>
3202L. <a href="xxx@yyy">
3203Which of these tags are all <table> tags?
3204
32056
32067 <table><tr><td>
32078
3208How can you make a list that lists the items with numbers?
3209
32103 <list>
3211
32124 <ol>
32135 <ul>
32146 <dl>
3215Choose the correct HTML to left-align the content inside a tablecell
3216
3217
3218
321936.
3220
322137. <tdalign="left"> HTTP is
3222
322338.
3224
322539. an application layer protocol
322640.
3227<a href="1.html" target="_blank">Click</a>.This code
3228
322942. Opens 1.html in new window
3230
3231In HTTP, which method gets the resource as specified in the URI
3232
3233f. GET
3234
3235Which of these is not a valid attribute of <tr> element?
3236
3237f. valign
3238
3239g. bgcolor
3240h. align
3241i. rowspan ==answer
3242Which attribute is used to specify the path of the image in <img> element?
3243
3244e. href
3245
3246f. src ==answer
3247g. path
3248h. link