· 9 years ago · Jan 05, 2017, 12:40 AM
1Allowing a connection through a firewall is known as creating: Exception
2Which of the terms listed below refers to a security solution implemented on an individual computer host monitoring that specific system for malicious activities or policy violations: HIDS
3Which of the answers listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object?: ACL
4 A type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) that relies on known attack patterns to detect an intrusion is known as a signature-based IDS.: True
5 Which of the following acronyms refers to a solution allowing companies to cut costs related to the managing of internal calls?: PBX
6CIDR Notation Memorization
7 Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?: PaaS
8 DNS database AAAA record identifies: IPv6 address
9 Which of the following answers lists the IPv6 loopback address?
10 Which of the protocols listed below run(s) on port number 22? (Select all that apply)
11
12 Which of the following ports enable(s) retrieving email messages from a remote server? (Select all that apply):†110, 143
13 Which of the port numbers listed below are used by NetBIOS? (Select all that apply): 137, 138, 139
14Memorize OSI model
15 FTPS is an extension to the FTP that adds support for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) cryptographic protocols.: True
16 Which of the protocols listed below facilitate(s) communication between SAN devices? (Select all that apply): iSCSI / FCoE
17 IMAP runs on TCP port: 143
18 Which of the following protocols operate(s) at layer 3 (the network layer) of the OSI model? (Select all that apply): ipsec, ipv6, ipv4, icmp
19 Which of the following protocols was introduced to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the replacement of legacy hardware?
20 Which of the protocols listed below encapsulates EAP within an encrypted and authenticated TLS tunnel?
21 AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2 is known as: CCMP
22
23 Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution allowing administrators to block Internet access for users until they perform required action? : Captive Portal
24 Which of the answers listed below refers to wireless site survey?: wardriving
25Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put?: AUP
26 Which of the answers listed below refers to a concept of having more than one person required to complete a given task?: separation of duties
27 Which of the following acronyms refers to a risk assessment formula defining probable financial loss due to a risk over a one-year period?: ALE
28 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF). The Exposure Factor (EF) used in the formula above refers to the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost when a specific threat is realized. Which of the following answers lists the EF value for an asset that is entirely lost?: 1.0
29 Disabling SSID broadcast: makes a wlan harder to discover
30 One of the goals behind the mandatory vacations policy is to mitigate the occurrence of fraudulent activity within the company.: True
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32 An optimal WAP antenna placement provides a countermeasure against: (Select 2 answers): War Driving, Site Survey
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35Which of the following terms is used to describe the loss of value to an asset based on a single security incident? SLA
36 An estimate based on the historical data of how often a threat would be successful in exploiting a vulnerability is known as: ARO
37 Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct formula for calculating probable financial loss due to a risk over a one-year period?: ALE = ARO x SLE
38 Which of the following terms is used to describe the average time required to repair a failed component or device?: MTTR
39 High MTBF value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail.: FALSE
40 A calculation of the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is an example of: Quantitative risk assessment
41Assessment of risk probability and its impact based on subjective judgment falls into the category of: Qualitative risk assessment
42 A path or tool allowing an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network is known as: Threat vector
43 In quantitative risk assessment, this term is used for estimating the likelihood of occurrence of a future threat. ARO
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45 Contracting out a specialized technical component when the company's employees lack the necessary skills is an example of: Risk transference
46 Disabling certain system functions or shutting down the system when risks are identified is an example of: Risk avoidance
47Which of the answers listed below exemplifies an implementation of risk transference methodology? Insurance policy
48Which of the following terms relates closely to the concept of residual risk? Risk acceptance
49 What type of risk management strategy is in place when accessing the network involves a login banner warning designed to inform potential attacker of the likelihood of getting caught? Risk deterrence
50 Which of the following security control types can be used in implementing a risk mitigation strategy? (Select all that apply) technical, management, operational
51 Which of the following acronyms refers to a maximum tolerable period of time required for restoring business functions after a failure or disaster? Single point of failure
52 Recovery time objective (RTO) specifies a point in time to which systems and data must be recovered after a disaster has occurred. False
53 Which of the following acronyms refers to a maximum tolerable period of time required for restoring business functions after a failure or disaster?: RTO
54 Which of the following answers refers to a key document governing the relationship between two business organisations? BPA
55A document established between two or more parties to define their respective responsibilities in accomplishing a particular goal or mission is known as: MOU
56 Which of the answers listed below refers to an agreement established between the organizations that own and operate connected IT systems to document the technical requirements of the interconnection? ISA
57
58 Which of the following functionalities allows a DLP system to fulfil its role? Content inspection
59 In forensic procedures, a sequence of steps in which different types of evidence should be collected is known as: Order of volatility
60 In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as: chain of custody
61 Which of the following answers lists an example order of volatility for a typical computer system? Memory dump, temporary files, disk files, archival media ( Your answer)
62 A sticky note with a password kept on sight in user's cubicle would be a violation of which of the following policies? Clean desk policy
63 EMI shielding protects the transferred data from: (Select all that apply) Outside interference, eavesdropping
64 Which of the following examples falls into the category of deterrent security control types?: Lighting
65 Which of the following solutions add(s) redundancy in areas identified as single points of failure? (Select all that apply): RAID, Hot site, UPS, Backup generator
66 What is the goal of tabletop exercises? (Select all that apply): Disaster recovery planning, Discussing a simulated emergency situation
67 Hardware-based RAID Level 0: (Select 2 answers): doesn’t offer fault tolerance, requires at least 2 drives
68 Hardware-based RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers): Requires 2 drives, Offers improved reliability, disk mirroring
69 Which of the following solutions does not offer fault tolerance?: RAID 0
70 Hardware-based RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers): requires 3 drives, offers increased performance
71 What is the function of archive bit? Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup
72 Restoring data from an incremental backup requires: (Select 2 answers): all copies of incremental backups made since last backup, copy of full last backup
73
74 A United States federal government initiative aimed at enabling agencies to continue their essential functions across a broad spectrum of emergencies is known as: COOP
75
76 A cold site is the most expensive type of backup site for an organization to operate.: False
77 Which of the following security controls provide(s) confidentiality? (Select all that apply): Encryption, steganography
78 Which of the following security controls provide(s) integrity? (Select all that apply): hashing, digital signatures, non-repudiation
79Non-repudiation definition
80 What is the purpose of non-repudiation? Preventing someone from denying that they have taken specific action ( Missed)
81 Which of the following answers refers to malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program? Trojan horse
82 Which of the following authentication protocols offer(s) countermeasures against replay attacks? (Select all that apply) IPSEC, Kerberos, CHAP
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84
85Which of the following answers apply to smurf attack? (Select 3 answers): ip spoofing, ddos, large amount of icmp echo requests
86 The practice of using a telephone system to manipulate user into disclosing confidential information is called: vishing
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88 Which of the answers listed below apply to xmas attack? (Select 2 answers) port scan, DoS
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90 Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic features of pharming? (Select all that apply) DNS poisoning, domain spoofing
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92 Which of the following answers refers to a DNS poisoning attack? pharming
93 Which of the following exploits takes advantage of the spoofed MAC address? Arp poisoning
94 Which of the following password attacks requires the most computing power? Brute force
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96 Phishing scams targeting people holding high positions in an organization or business are known as: vishing
97 Which of the following fall(s) into the category of social engineering attacks? (Select all that apply) whaling, shoulder surfing, dumpster diving, tailgating
98Vishing definition
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101 The practice of gaining unauthorized access to a Bluetooth device is referred to as: bluesnarfing
102 What type of action allows an attacker to exploit the XSS vulnerability?: code injection
103 Which of the answers listed below refers to a common target of cross-site scripting?: dynamic web pages
104
105 Which of the following acronyms refers to flash cookies? LSO
106 Which of the following security control types fall(s) into the category of detection controls? (Select all that apply): cctv monitoring, motion sensors, ids
107 The process of OS hardening involves: (Select all that apply): disabling unncesssary services, password protection, disabling unnecessary accounts
108 Penetration testing: (Select all that apply): bypasses security controls, actively tests security controls, exploits vulns
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110
111 The term "Trusted OS" refers to an operating system: with enhanced security features
112 A piece of hardware and associated software / firmware that usually attaches to the inside of a PC or server and provides at least the minimum of cryptographic functions is called: HSM
113HSM definition
114 Which of the following acronyms refers to software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of the corporate network? DLP
115
116 One of the advantages of the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is that it provides encryption for the entire authentication process. FALSE
117 Assigning a unique key, called a ticket, to each user that logs on to the network is a characteristic feature of: Kerberos
118 Which of the following port numbers is used by Kerberos? 88
119 What type of encryption protocols are used by Secure LDAP (LDAPS)? (Select all that apply)
120Which of the following authentication protocols offer(s) countermeasures against replay attacks? (Select all that apply) IPsec, CHAP
121Which of the following solutions provides a single sign-on capability for Web services? SAML
122 TACACS+ runs on TCP port: 49
123 Which part of the AAA framework deals with verification of the identity of a person or process? Authentication
124
125 Which of the answers listed below refers to a security measure providing protection against various password-based attacks, specifically password sniffing and replay attacks? OTP
126OTP Definition
127 An algorithm used for computing one-time password from a shared secret key and the current time is known as: TOTP
128TOTP Definition
129 Which of the following protocols transmits passwords over the network in an unecrypted form and is therefore considered unsecure? PAP
130 Which part of the AAA framework deals with granting or denying access to resources? Authorization
131An access control model in which every resource has a sensitivity label matching a clearance level assigned to a user is known as: DAC
132DAC definition
133 Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model? (Select 3 answers) Users not allowed to change access policies, labels and clearance levels can only be applied or changed by admin, every resource has a sensitivity label matching clearance level assigned to user
134 Which of the answers listed below refers to the most common access control model used in Trusted OS implementations? MAC
135One of the basic requirements of the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is that in order to be able to access a resource user's clearance level must be equal or higher than the sensitivity level assigned to the resource. True
136An access control method based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong is called: HMAC
137 Which of the following answers refer to the Rule-Based Access Control (RBAC) model? (Select 2 answers): access to resoucres granted or denied depending on ACL entries, implemented in network devices such as firewalls in order to control inbound and outbound traffic based on filtering rules
138
139 Which of the access control models listed below enforces the strictest set of access rules? MAC
140 Which part of the AAA framework incorporates the time-of-day restrictions requirement? Authorization
141 The two basic techniques for encrypting information include symmetric encryption (also called public-key encryption) and asymmetric encryption (also called secret-key encryption.) Password length, password complexity
142
143 In asymmetric encryption, any message encrypted with the use of the public key can only be decrypted by applying the same algorithm and the matching private key. True
144 Large amount of processing power required to both encrypt and decrypt the content of the message causes that symmetric-key encryption algorithms are much slower when compared to algorithms used in asymmetric encryption. False
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147 Block ciphers work by encrypting each plaintext digit one at a time. False
148 An IPsec mode providing encryption only for the payload (the data part of the packet) is known as: Tunnel mode
149 What is the purpose of non-repudiation? Preventing someone from denying that they have taken specific action
150 Taking hashes ensures that data retains its: Integrity
151 What is the name of a storage solution used to retain copies of private encryption keys? Key escrow
152
153 A digital signature is a hash of a message that uniquely identifies the sender of the message and provides a proof that the message hasn't changed in transit. True
154 What are the features of Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)? (Select 2 answers) Asymmetric encryption, suitable for small wireless devices
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156 Which of the following answers refer to the applications / features of quantum cryptography? (Select 2 answers) protection against eavesdropping, secure key exchange
157 SHA, MD5, and RIPEMD are examples of: hash functions
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159 Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES): (Select all that apply) symmetric-key algorithm, 128-,192,-256-bit keys, block cipher algorithm
160
161 Unlike stream ciphers which process data by encrypting individual bits, block ciphers divide data into separate fragments and encrypt each fragment separately. True
162
163 Which of the following are symmetric-key algorithms? (Select 3 answers) AES, DES, 3DES
164 Which of the following answers refers to a solution for secure exchange of cryptographic keys? (Select best answer) Diffie-hellman
165 One of the answers below lists some of the past and current authentication protocols used in Microsoft networks arranged from oldest / obsolete up to the current recommendation. Which of the answers lists the protocols in the correct order? LANMAN › NTLM › NTLMv2 › Kerberos ( Your answer)
166 GNU Privacy Guard (GPG) provides similar functionality and an alternative to: PGP
167 Which of the protocols listed below uses elliptic curve cryptography for secure exchange of cryptographic keys? ECDHE
168 In cryptography, the term "key stretching" refers to a mechanism for extending the length of the cryptographic key in order to make it more secure against brute force attacks. True
169 Examples of key stretching algorithms include: (Select 2 answers) : PBKDF2, Bcrypt
170 Which of the solutions listed below allow(s) to check whether a digital certificate has been revoked? (Select all that apply) : CRL, OCSP
171
172 Which of the following provides the fastest way for validating a digital certificate?: OCSP
173 Copies of lost private encryption keys can be retrieved from a key database by: Recovery agents