DrBv0HLf

1[CHAPTER 3]
2* Your company has decided to hire a full-time video editor. You have been asked to find a system with the level of display quality needed by someone who will be working with video all day.
3
4	Which of the following video card specifications will have the greatest impact on display quality?
5	> Refresh rate
6	> Resolution
7
8* Match the video card types on the left with the appropriate characteristics on the right. Each video card type is used more than once.
9	Installed in an expansion card slot on the motherboard.
10	> Dedicated video cards	
11	Has a GPU and a dedicated high-speed video memory bank.
12	> Dedicated video cards
13	Are more powerful and more expensive.
14	> Dedicated video cards
15	GPU is integrated with another hardware component, such as a motherboard or CPU.
16	> Integrated video cards
17	Shares system memory for graphic processing.
18	> Integrated video cards
19	Are much cheaper and less powerful.
20	> Integrated video cards
21
22* A customer wants to add an additional video card to her computer so she can play the latest computer games. As a result, this system will now have multi-GPU configuration.
23
24	Which of the following statements are true? (Select TWO).
25	> The motherboard should support either SLI or CrossFire.
26	> For the best performance, both video cards should be identical.
27
28* You need to connect a monitor that provides an HDMI port and a VGA port to a video adapter in a P system that uses a DVI-D connector.
29
30	Which of the following options would provide the BEST display quality at the lowest cost?
31	> Use an adapter to connect the monitor HDMI port to the DVI-D connector on the PC.
32
33* You are in the process of building a new computer. You would like to configure your computer to use SLI to improve performance while playing your favorite game.
34
35	Which of the following will MOST likely be part of the configuration process? (Select THREE.)
36	> Purchase two graphics cards with SLI and similar specifications.
37	> Purchase a motherboard with two (or more) PCIe x16 slots.
38	> Connect at least one monitor to the graphics card.
39
40* You are in the process of building a new computer. You would like to configure your computer to use Crossfire to improve performance when playing your favorite game. Which of the following will be part of the configuration process?
41	> Purchase two identical video cards.
42
43* The CEO of your small company has asked you to connect his laptop computer to the small conference room LED TV. The CEO will be showing a new promotional video that demonstrates the new company strategy through images and sound.
44
45	Which of the following cable types would work BEST for connecting his laptop to the display?
46	> HDMI
47
48* You have a friend who is offering to sell the monitor and video card from his gaming system along with several PC games. The games have fast-moving graphics, and you want to be able to play them on your own home system. The monitor he is selling is an LCD TN with a 144-Hz refresh rate. The video card he is selling supports a max refresh rate of 144 Hz. You're sure you want to buy the games, but you have a couple of other choices when it comes to the monitor and the video card.
49
50	The monitor in your current system has a 60 Hz refresh rate. The video card has a max refresh rate of 75 Hz. This configuration has always worked fine for watching videos. You're also looking at new 60-Hz LCD IPS monitors and several high-end video cards with max refresh rates of up to 240 Hz.
51
52	Which of the following will most likely allow you to play the games on your home system with the best gaming experience possible?
53	> Buy your friend's games, monitor, and video card. Swap out both your video card and monitor.
54
55* Which of the following video card connectors provides digital video output? (Select TWO).
56	> DVI-D
57	> HDMI
58
59* A TV station needs to view and capture high-definition television (HDTV) signals on their computer. This allows the host's staff to prepare audio and sound bites for the show. The station has purchased a TV tuner card but cannot get it to capture video or sound.
60
61	Which of the following is MOST likely causing the card to function improperly?
62	> They purchased an ATSC card, but did not connect the card to the TV feed cable.
63
64* You work for a company that provides technical support for customers. One customer calls wanting to know how to adjust their monitor so they can have the sharpest and most detailed images, words, and icons.
65
66	Which Control Panel setting should you adjust to BEST meet the customer's needs?
67	> Resolution
68
69* You want to be able to watch and record live TV on your computer. Your computer already has a video card, so you want to purchase an additional card that provides TV tuner input capabilities.
70
71	Which of the following should MOST likely be part of the configuration process? (Select TWO).
72	> Purchase a card that supports ATSC.
73	> Connect the TV input to the tuner card using coaxial cable and F-type connectors.
74
75* You are installing a high-end PCIe x16 video card in a new computer. The video card has connectors for two displays. The card also has dual fans to cool the unit.
76
77	Which of the following will MOST likely be part of the installation?
78	> Connect a 6- or 8-pin power connector to the video card.
79
80* You have just installed a new video card in Mark's computer. When you power on the computer, Windows automatically detects the new device and tries to locate an applicable device driver. Unfortunately, Windows cannot locate the required driver.
81
82	Which of the following would be the BEST administrative tool to fix Mark's computer?
83	> Computer Management
84
85* A customer would like you to install a high-end video card suitable for gaming.
86
87	Your installation and configuration SHOULD include which of the following? (Select THREE).
88	> Ensure that the video card is compatible with the expansion slot.
89	> Install the new video drivers from CD and then install updated drivers from the Internet.
90	> Configure the PC to use the integrated graphics if available and needed.
91[CHAPTER 3]
92
93[CHAPTER 4]
94* The marketing department has hired a new employee. Prior to the new employee's first day at work, you have set up and configured a new laptop computer. The computer and all of the peripherals were purchased from the same vendor. After the new employee begins work, you receive a phone call stating that the wireless mouse is not working.
95
96	Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the mouse isn't working?
97	> The USB mouse receiver is not plugged into the computer.
98
99* You need to connect a new USB scanner to the USB port on your computer. However, the first time you plugged the scanner in, it was not recognized. What should you do?
100	> Install the scanner drivers and then connect the scanner to the USB port and complete the Add a Device wizard when it pops up.
101
102* You are an IT technician for your company. As part of your job, you must manage and support a wide variety of devices.
103
104	Which of the following is the MOST common interface for peripheral devices?
105	> USB
106
107* Which of the following standards provides data transfer rates of up to 480 Mbps with a maximum cable length of 5 meters?
108	> USB 2.0
109
110* What is the maximum data transfer speed for USB 3.0 devices?
111	> 5 Gbps
112
113* Your company has just upgraded your laptop computer. After receiving your new computer, you plug your external USB 2.0 hard disk into your new USB 3.0 port.
114
115	Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement regarding how this device will function?
116	> The device will work, but will only transfer at USB 2.0 speeds.
117
118* You are an IT technician for your company. As part of your job, you must manage and support a wide variety of devices.
119
120	Which of the following devices MOST likely uses a micro-USB connector? (Select TWO).
121	> Digital cameras
122	> Smartphones
123
124* Select the aspect ration that applies to the display types listed.
125
126	Which aspect ratio applies to displays with resolutions of 800x600 and 1600x1200?
127	> 4:3
128	Which aspect ratio applies to displays with resolutions of 1680x1050 and 1920x1200?
129	> 16:10
130	Which aspect ration applies to displays with resolutions of 1280x720 and 1920x1080?
131	> 16:9
132
133* You recently purchased a laptop computer. As a member of the sales team, you often travel to present sales demonstrations. At one such presentation, you notice that the images being shown by a projector seem large and somewhat skewed.
134
135	Which of the following changes would MOST likely give you an accurate projection of your presentation?
136	> Configure the projector to use a 16:9 aspect ratio.
137
138* You work as the IT administrator for a small news station. Jill, an employee in building 2, works in the audio/video editing department and would like to increase her productivity. For example, she would like to be able to run multiple programs simultaneously and be able to compare video clips side-by-side.
139
140	Which of the following configuration changes would provide the BEST solution for Jill?
141	> Configure Jill's computer to have dual monitors.
142
143* A company is purchasing new laptops for their graphic artist division.
144
145	Which of the following display technologies provides better contrast and deeper blacks, resulting in better picture quality?
146	> OLED
147
148* Which of the following terms describes the difference between white and black in an LCD monitor?
149	> Contrast ratio
150
151* Which of the following is true of modern LCD monitors regarding backlighting?
152	> LEDs are used to backlight the screen.
153
154* You are putting together a gaming system and need to make sure you get a display that meets your needs. The display needs to have a very good response time, and you would prefer that it be affordable and power-efficient.
155
156	Which of the following types of displays will MOST likely meet these needs?
157	> LCD display with TN panel
158
159* You are putting together a system for a graphic artist and need to make sure you get a display that meetes her needs. The display needs to have very good color reproduction quality and viewing angles. The display needs to cool and be power-efficient.
160
161	Which of the following types of displays will MOST likely meet these needs?
162	> LCD display with IPS panel
163
164* You are a trainer for your company and often teach courses in a classroom located on-campus or in a hotel conference room. In your office, which is separate from the classroom, you have two external monitors connected to your laptop, and you are able to display different content on each monitor. However, when teaching, you only have your laptop and a projection unit. To make teaching easier, you want to the same content to show on both laptop monitor and the projection screen.
165
166	Which of the following multiple display options would be BEST to select when teaching?
167	> Duplicate these displays.
168
169* Lloyd works for a graphic design company. He needs a monitor that accurately represents colors. Lloyd's monitor recently failed, and you have been asked to purchase a new one. You have been asked to find a monitor with a high pixel refresh rate, low energy consumption, and very accurate colors representation.
170
171	Which of the following types of displays will BEST meet the requirements requested?
172	> OLED
173
174* Ida, one of the employees in the sales department, needs a way to display her PowerPoint sales presentation to a large group of potential customers. She has asked you to set up the conference room in preparation for her presentation. You will need to purchase a display system for the conference room.
175
176	Which of the following display systems would be the BEST to purchase?
177	> A large screen and a projector
178
179* Which of the following are true of the SXGA scren resolution? (Select TWO.)
180	> 5:4 aspect ratio
181	> 1280 x 1024
182
183* What is the difference between UXGA and WUXGA displays?
184	> WUXGA has a widescreen aspect ratio.
185
186* You have just purchased 10 new notebook systems for your users. You are concerned that users will leave the systems on for long periods of time, which could result in display burn-in.
187
188	What should you do to prevent this from happening?
189	> Configure a screen saver on each system.
190
191* After using your LCD monitor for about three months, you notice a small black dot in one area of the screen. Regardless of what is shown on the monitor, the dot remains the same color and in the same location.
192
193	Which of the following is the BEST method for removing the black dot from the monitor?
194	> Play a video designed to fix dead pixels.
195
196* For several years, the monitor on your laptop has worked perfectly. However, shortly after turning on your laptop today, you noticed a definite dimness.
197
198	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? (Select TWO).
199	> The monitor's inverter has gone bad.
200	> The power adapter was accidentally unplugged.
201
202* Your monitor is displaying images in strange colors.
203
204	Which of the following is MOST likely the solution to this problem?
205	> Increase the color depth.
206
207* A customer complains that a recently purchased monitor no longer displays a picture. You verify that the monitor is powered on and that the video cable is securely fastened to the video port.
208
209	Which of the following actions is the BEST to take next?
210	> Check the monitor's brightness and contrast settings using the controls on the monitor.
211
212* You recently upgraded a client's older workstation from Windows 7 to Windows 10. The client has called to complain that the interface is very slow. For example, after clicking on the Start button, the Start Menu slowly appears on the screen.
213
214	Which of the following will MOST likely fix this problem without requiring a hardware upgrade?
215	> Set the visual effects for best performance.
216
217* You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the HDMI port on your computer using an HDMI cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1280 x 1024 with 32-bit color. The geometry of the images displayed on the screen appear to be distorted.
218
219	What should you do to correct the problem?
220	> Set the display resolution to the native resolution of the monitor.
221
222* You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1440 x 900 with 32-bit color. The display on the screen seems to be pixilated.
223
224	Which of the following solutions is MOST likely to fix this problem?
225	> Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor.
226
227* You have purchased a 1600 x 1200 LCD monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution at 1280 x 1024 with 24-bit color. The display output seems to be fuzzy and stretched.
228
229	Which of the following BEST describes the action you should take to correct the problem?
230	> Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the moinitor.
231
232* You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the HDMI port on your computer using an HDMI cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1280 x 768 with 32-bit color. The images displayed on the screen appear to be overly large.
233
234	What should you do to correct the problem?
235	> Set the display resolution to the native resolution of the monitor.
236
237* As you arrive on-site at a customer's place of business, you go up to the front desk and ask for Mr. Magorium, the head of the IT department. Mr. Magorium meets you, introduces himself as Edward, and escorts you to the printer, which is jammed. After you fix the printer, the existing print job completes. As the paper comes out, you notice that one of them is marked confidential and has to do with an upcoming merger. You go to Mr. Magorium's and say, Hi Edward, your printer is fixed and working perfectly. Mr. Magorium then escorts you off the premises. When you get home that evening, you tell your spouse about the merger document you saw. The next day, you call Mr. Magorium to verify that the printer is still functioning properly.
238
239	Which of the following professionalism principles is the technician failing to follow?
240	> Deal with confidential materials appropriately.
241
242* You've just installed a new video card in a user's Windows workstation. When the system is powered on, the screen is displayed in 16 colors at 640x480 resolution.
243
244	Which of the following will BEST resolve this problem?
245	> Download and install the latest driver from the video card manufacturer's website.
246
247* Alice recently purchased a new cell phone. After her vacation, Alice wanted to transfer her holiday photos to her computer, where she could do some touchup work before sending the pictures to her children. When Alice attached herphone to her computer, she saw that Windows detected her phone and tried to load the applicable software to give her access to her phone. Unforunately, after trying for several minutes, Windows displayed a message indicating that it was unsuccessful. When Alice explored her available drives, her phone was not listed. 
248
249	Which of the following would be the BEST administrative tool to help Alice gain access to her phone?
250	> Device Manager
251
252* You have decided to install a new Ethernet network adapter in your Windows 10 desktop computer. After installing the card and booting to Windows, you notice that you have no network connection. After looking in Device Manager, you see that the new network card was detected, but Windows doesn't know what it is. After doing a quick search on the internet, you find what looks like the correct driver and install it. A reboot of Windows is performed, but almost immediately after logging on, your computer crashes. Thinking this must be a fluke, you reboot again with the same result.
253
254	Which of the following is the BEST tool to get Windows to load properly?
255	> Boot to Safe Mode and uninstall the network driver.
256
257* You have just installed a new hardware device, upgraded the driver, and installed the custom software that came with the device. Now you can't get the device to work.
258
259	Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first?
260	> Run any diagnostic software that came with the device
261
262* Which system utility would you use to troubleshoot hardware devices, examine and control the resources used by specific devices, and install updated device drivers?
263	> Device Manager
264
265* A user complains that his USB scanner no longer works. You check Device Manager and see an icon with a black down arrow on it. What should you do?
266	> ERnable the device in Device Manger
267
268* You have just installed a new device in your Windows system. After installation, you can't use the device. You check Device Manager and find an icon for the device with a yellow exclamation mark over it. What should you do?
269	> Download the latest driver from the manufacturer's website.
270
271* A user installs a new graphics application on her Windows system. During the installation process, the application prompts the user to load a custom video driver that has been optimized for the application. She does so and then completes the installation.
272
273Several days later, the user reports that her display doesn't seem to be working properly under some conditions. To fix this problem, you need to reload the old video driver.
274
275	Which of the following actions are the BEST choices? (Select TWO).
276	> Use Device Manager to roll back the video driver.
277	> Revert the system to a restore point prior to installing the video driver.
278
279* You have just connected a new USB device to your Windows system. You used the installation disc that came with the device to install the drivers needed to support the device. Since the installation, the system frequently crashes when you try to access the new device.
280
281	Which of the following steps would MOST likely resolve this issue?
282	> Download and install the latest driver from the manufacturer's website.
283
284* During the POST, you receive the following message:
285
286Keyboard not present. Press F1 to continue.
287
288	What are the most likely causes of this error message? (Select TWO.)
289	> A poor keyboard connection
290	> A stuck key on the keyboard
291
292* You have just installed several devices to a computer at once, but now the computer fails to boot properly.
293
294	Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first?
295	> Remove all of the newly added devices and install them one at a time.
296
297* You are trying to connect a new USB device to your computer. You install the driver and then connect the device to an open USB port. The device does not work.
298
299	Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first?
300	> Make sure the USB device is plugged in properly.
301
302* In which of the following situations would driver rollback be the BEST tool to use?
303	> You recently installed a new video driver, and now the system behaves erratically.
304[CHAPTER 4]
305
306[CHAPTER 5]
307* Which Blu-ray standrad definse rewritable disks?
308	>BD-RE
309
310* Which optical media has the greatest storage capactity?
311	> Single-layer, single-sided Blu-ray disc
312
313* You have a CD-RW drive that advertises speeds of 32x/12x/48x. What is the read speed of the drive?
314	> 48x
315
316* Match each label on the left with the correct characteristics on the right.
317
318	First developed to store digital music. Later, was adapted to store digital computer data.
319	> Compact Disc (CD)
320	Can be written, read many times, erased, rewritten, and has a capactiy of about 650 MB.
321	> Compact Disc (CD-RW)
322	Single-sided discs can hold about 4.8 GB of data. Dual-layer discs can hold up to 8.5 GB of data.
323	> Digital Versatile Disc (DVD)
324	Dual-layer version employs two recordable dye layers, each capable of storing data.
325	> Digital Versatile Disc (DVD-RW)
326	Uses blue laser light, which has a short wavelength, allowing data to be packed more tightly onto the disc and is rewritable.
327	> Blu-ray Disc (BD-RE)
328	Was originally developed for high-definition video (and expanded content on movie discs), but can also be used for data storage.
329	> Blu-ray Disc (BD)
330
331* Which of the following are optical storage devices? (Select THREE.)
332	> CD
333	> DVD
334	> BD
335
336* Due to a blackout, power is no longer coming from the wall outlet, and your computer is now off. You do not have a UPS, and you need to remove a disc out of the DVD drive. What is the easiest method for retrieving the disc?
337	> Push an unbent paper clip into the hold on the front of the drive.
338
339* You work for a small company as the human resources specialist. Since the company is fairly small, you are maintaining all of the employee information on your desktop computer, which is running Windows 10. This computer has two high-capacity hard disks. You want to ensure that the information is protected from a hard disk failure, so you want to set up a Windows software RAID system.
340
341	Which of the following would be your BEST solution?
342	> Use mirrored volumes.
343
344* You are running Windows 10 on your computer. You want to decrease the time it takes to write data to your drives. To do this, you have decided to create a Windows software RAID system using a striped volume. 
345
346	Before you create the striped volume, which action MUST you take?
347	> Convert basic disks to dynamic disks.
348
349* One of your customers wants you to build a personal server that he can use in his home. One of his concerns is making sure he has at least one backup of their data stored on the server in the event that a disk fails. You have decided to back up his data using RAID. Since this server is for personal use only, the customer wants to keep costs down. Therefore, he would like to keep the number of drives to a minimum.
350
351	Which of the following RAID systems would BEST meet the customer's specifications?
352	> RAID 1
353
354* Ben is concerned about losing data due to a hard disk failure. His computer will only support a maximum of three disks. To protect his data, you have decided to use RAID (redundant array of independent disks).
355	Which of the following RAID types would give Ben the BEST mirrored data protection?
356	> RAID 1
357
358* You have been asked to configure the drives in a computer. The end user wants to use striping without incorporating any fault tolerance.
359
360	Which of the following will BEST meet these requirements?
361	> RAID 0
362
363* You are building a new computer that will contain two hard disks. To provide increased performance, you have decided to configure the drives using RAID technology.
364
365	Which of the following will BEST meet your needs?
366	> RAID 0
367
368* You have a computer with three hard disks. A RAID 0 volume uses space on Disk 1 and Disk 2. A RAID 1 volume uses space on Disk 2 and Disk 3. Disk 2 fails. Which of the following is true?
369	> Data on the RAID 1 volume is accessible; data on the RAID 0 volume is not.
370
371* A computer being used by the HR department needs to ensure that all of the data on that computer is protected from a single hard disk failure. The data needs to be read as quickly as possible, and the HR department would like to maxmimize drive use as much as possible. This computer can use up to three hard drives.
372
373	Which of the following RAID types would meet these requirements and provide the BEST data protection?
374	> RAID 5
375
376* What is an advantage of RAID 5 over RAID 1?
377	> RAID 5 improves performance over RAID 1.
378
379* You ahve been asked to implement a RAID 5 solution for an enginerr's desktop workstation. What is the minimum number of hard disks that can be used to configure RAID 5?
380	> 3
381
382* One of the video editors in your company is worried that he may lose a lot of data if his hard drive fails. He has hasked you to come up with a solution. To do this, you have decided to implement a RAID 10 solution on his desktop workstation.
383
384	Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of hard disks that can be used?
385	> 4
386
387* Which of the following drive configurations uses striping with parity for fault tolerance?
388	> RAID 5
389
390* You are configuring a new system, and you want to use a RAID 0 array for the operating system using SATA disks and the RAID functionality built into the motherboard.
391
392	Which of the following BEST describes the action you will take as part of the configuration?
393	> Load the RAID drivers duing operating system installation.
394
395* You have an existing computer running Windows 10. You want to configure a RAID 1 array in the computer. You install two new SATA drives, then use the RAID controller integrated in the motherboard to define a RAID 1 array using them. When you boot the computer, Windows does not show the logical RAID drive. What should you do?
396	> Install the drivers for the RAID controller.
397
398* You are in the process of preparing a storage device and must determine which file system to use.
399
400	Which of the following BEST describes the advantage of using the exFAT file system rather than NTFS?
401	> Lower memory and procssor resource use
402
403* You have just purchased a new USB drive that you want to use to troubleshoot the computers in your company as well as other network devices, such as printers and projectors. You need to format this new drive with a file system that will be recognized and used on all devices.
404
405	When formatting your USB drive, which of the following file system types would meet MOST, if not all, of your needs?
406	> FAT32
407
408* You are installing Windows 10 on a drive that was previously used for Windows 8.1. This drive has one primary partition. While isntalling Windows, you want to ensure that the old files are deleted and any bad sectors are located and marked as bad.
409
410	To achieve your desired goal,w hich of the following is the BEST option to run?
411	> Full format
412
413* What is required to control access to the file system using file and folder permissions on a Windows-based computer?
414	> NTFS-formatted partition
415
416* You have added two new hard disks to a Windows computer. The disks are configured as basic disks.
417
418	Which of the following could be configured on these disks? (Select TWO).
419	> Extended partitions with logical drives
420	> Primary partitions
421
422* You have an extra disk on your system that has three primary partitions and an extended partition with two logical drives. You want to convert the partitions to simple volumes, preferably without losing any data.
423
424	Which of the following is the BEST step to perform?
425	> Upgrade the disk to a dynamic disk.
426
427* While configuring a computer, you find that you need to create, format, and manage the partitions and volumes on your hard drives.
428
429	Which of the following is the BEST command line utility to use?
430	> DiskPart
431
432* Match each disk type of the left with its corresponding description/features on the right. Each disk type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
433
434	Supports up to 128 volumes.
435	> Dynamic disks
436	Use primary and extended partitions
437	> Basic disks
438	Are supported by all operating systems.
439	> Basic disks
440	Support volumes that use discontigous disk space.
441	> Dynamic disks
442	Store partitioning information in a hidden database on all such disks in the system.
443	> Dynamic disks
444	Only support volumes made up of contigous disk space.
445	> Basic disks
446
447* If you want to boot from a hard drive, what must it have?
448	> Active partition
449
450* Which partition type identifies the partition as one that holds the boot loader program used to start the operating system?
451	> Active
452
453* Which of the following is true about primary partitions?
454	> The active partition must be a primary partition.
455
456* You want to set up a Windows system to also be able to boot to Linux. To be able to dual boot, the system needs a partition on which to install Linux. However, you don't have an extra hard disk that can be used for the Linux partiion. The existing disk has no unpartitioned space available, but it has about 300 GB of free space.
457
458	Which of the following disk management operations will BEST prepare your hard disk for dual boot?
459	> Shrink the primary partition
460
461* Which disk types does Windows support? (Select TWO.)
462	> Basic
463	> Dynamic
464
465* Which of the following conditions would prevent you from using a GUID Partition Table (GPT) when setting up a disk drive?
466	> You're setting up the drive to boot Windows 10 on a computer that uses traditional BIOS.
467
468* You have four volumes on a basic hard disk. You convert the disk to dynamic.
469
470	After the conversion, which of the following are you MOST likely to see as the status of the fourth volume if it is valid and has no errors?
471	> Healthy
472
473* Match the disk status on the left with the corresponding description on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
474
475	Shows while a disk is being converted from a basic disk to a dynamic disk.
476	> Initializing
477	Indicates that the disk is turned on and can be accessed and the volume on the disk is valid and has no errors.
478	> Healthy
479	Indicates that errors have occurred on physical or dynamic disks.
480	> Unavailable
481	Shows when a dynamic disk has been removed or turned off.
482	> Offline
483
484* You have four volumes on a basic hard disk.
485
486	Which of the following are you MOST likely to see as the status of the fourth volume if it is valid and has no errors?
487	> Healthy (Logical Drive)
488
489* You have just added a brand new hard disk to your Windows-based computer. When you power on the computer, the disk is not shown in File Explorer. To troubleshoot this issue, you open the Windows Disk Management console and see that the disk is present, but is shown as Unknown.
490
491	Which of the following disk management steps is MOST likely required first?
492	> The disk needs to be initialized.
493
494* You have a disk in your system that is displayed in the Disk Management utility, as shown in the image below. The disk icon includes a red arrow that is pointing down.
495
496	Which of the following would you expect to see, in the space where the red outline is, as the status of this disk?
497	> Not initialized
498
499* You have a DVD-ROM disc with no label, and you want to know if it has any important files on it. You insert the DVD-ROM into your optical media drive, then you double-click the drive letter for the optical drive to see the contents of the disc.
500
501	If the DVD-ROM is not a valid disc, which error message will you see?
502	> No Media
503
504* You have a hard disk that is formatted with the FAT32 file system. You would like to implement file and folder permissions on the Design folder that apply when files are accessed both locally and remotely.
505
506	Which of the following BEST describe the next step you need to perform?
507	> Use the conver command to conver from FAT32 to NTFS and then configure NTFS permissions.
508
509* You have just finished installing Windows on a system that ocntains four physical hard disks. The installation process has created a system volume and  C: volume on the first disk (Disk 0). The installation process also initialized the second disk (Disk 1) and the third disk (Disk 2), but did not create any volumes on these disks.
510
511	Which of the following would you expect to see as the status of Disk 1 and Disk 2?
512	> Unallocated
513
514* Your computer's hard drive is currently formatted as FAT32, but you want to take advantage of the features offered to NTFS drives.
515
516	Which of the following steps would MOST likely allow you to do this without losing the existing data?
517	> Use the convert command at a command prompt.
518
519* You have a computer with a single hard disk configured as a basic disk with a single partition formatted with NTFS. The computer runs Windows 10. The disk has runo ut of space. You need to add space to the disk. You install a new hard drive and start Disk Management.
520
521	Which of the following is a required task to add space to the existing volume?
522	> On the new hard disk, create a new partition without a drive letter.
523
524* Your computer has a single hard disk with a single volume used by the C:\ drive. You have previously upgraded the disk to a dynamic disk. The disk has run out of disk space. You need to add more space to the C:\ volume. You add a new hard disk to the computer.
525
526	Which of the following is the BEST step to complete while adding space to the C:\ drive?
527	> Create a mount point using space on the second disk.
528
529* What tool would you use to create and delete partitions on hard drives?
530	> Disk Management
531
532* Which of the following is a characteristic of extended partitions?
533	> They are subdivided into logical drives.
534
535* Your system volume is running out of disk space. You need to extend the system volume to give it more space.
536
537	Which of the following conditions MUST be met to extend the system volume? (Select TWO).
538	> The disk must have contigous free space on the same disk.
539	> The system volume must be formatted with NTFS
540
541* You want to combine storage space from two different hard disks into a single logical storage unit on your Windows computer.
542
543	Which of the following is the BEST step to perform?
544	> Use dynamic disks and a spanned volume.
545
546* Check Disk detects disk integrity errors and fixes them. MAtch the types of errors Check Disk detects and fixes on the left with the error descriptions on the right.
547
548	A series of used clusters on the hard disk drive that are not associated with a specific file.
549	> Lost clusters
550	Occurs when two files claim the same cluster.
551	> Cross-linked file
552	Files that exist on the hard drive but are not associated with a directory in the index.
553	> Orphaned files
554	A portion of the hard disk that cannot be used
555	> Bad sector
556
557* You are an IT administrator troubleshooting a computer from within the Windows command prompt. You are trying to execute the chkdsk command line tool, but it keep failing.
558
559	Which of the following command switches would give you the BEST information or help on how to run this command?
560	> chkdsk /?
561
562* Which of the following Windows command line utilities would you use to realign the file structure ont he disk to optimize performance?
563	> defrag
564
565* Which of the following disk maintenance utilities locates and disposes of files that can be safely removed from the disk?
566	> Disk Cleanup
567
568* Which of the following disk maintenance utilities optimizes the performance of your hard drive by joining parts of files that are in different locations on your hard drive to a single location?
569	> Disk Defragmenter
570
571* Which of the following disk maintenance utilities optimizes the performance of your hard drive by verifying the file system integrity of a hard disk and fixing the errors it detects?
572	> Check Disk
573
574* Your computer currently uses a 5,400 RPM hard disk. You want to improve your computer's overall performance by optimizing your hard disk performance.
575
576	Which of the following would be the MOST effective means for optimizing your hard disk performance? (Select TWO).
577	> Uprade your hard disk interface to SATA 3.
578	> Upgrade to a 10,000 RPM hard disk.
579
580* Which of the following utilities checks the disk for bad clusters?
581	> chkdsk
582
583* Which of the following utilities would you use to correct cross-linked clusters within the file system on a Windows workstation?
584	> chkdsk
585
586* You have used your computer for several months without any issues. Recently, you have noticed that when you perform specific actions or open certain files, your computer crashes, and programs sometimes freeze. You suspect that hard disk issues are the cause.
587
588	Which of the following tools would BEST verify and fix disk errors?
589	> chkdsk
590
591* One day, while trying to start your Windows 10 system, you see the following error displayed: 
592
593Could not read from the selected boot disk. Check boot path and disk hardware.
594
595	Which of the following will MOST likely fix the problem?
596	> Boot into the recovery environment and run the bootrec /rebuildbcd command.
597
598* You have just finished upgrading the 250 W power supply in your desktop computer to a 450 W power supply. Now the BIOS doesn't recognize one of the hard disk drives in the system during POST.
599
600	Which of the following steps is the BEST to try first?
601	> Make sure that the hard disk is connected to the power supply.
602
603* You have physically installed a new hard disk drive in your computer and configured the disk in the BIOS using the CMOS setup program. You try to access the hard disk drive in Windows Explorer, but the drive is not displayed.
604
605	> Which of the following utilities will you MOST likely use to solve the problem?
606	Disk Management
607
608* Lately, you hear a clicking noise when reading or writing data from the hard disk. What is the most likely case of the clicking?
609	> Failing hard drive
610
611* You have just finished upgrading the power supply in your desktop computer. Now the hard disk will not work.
612
613	What should you do first?
614	> Make sure the power connectors on the hard disk are plugged in all of the way.
615
616* You have just finished installing a new SATA hard disk in your computer. Now your SATA DVD drive won't work.
617
618	Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the BEST to try first? (Select TWO).
619	> Make sure that the DVD power cable is connected.
620	> Make sure that the DVD SATA cable is connected.
621
622* You have just received a frantic call from a customer. She informs you that after turning her computer on, she received the following error:
623
624The SMART hard disk check has detected an imminent failure.
625
626	Which of the following is the BEST first step to take?
627	> Back up all important data and files.
628
629* You have a computer with a removable disk drive that has been formatted with NTFS. You want the drive to use FAT32 to be comptible with more operating systems. The drive is currently configured using drive letter D:.
630
631	Which of the following actions MUST you complete to make the desired changes?
632	> Back up the data on the D: drive. Reformat the D: drive using FAT32. Restore the data.
633
634* You have a computer running Windows 10 Home. You need to access the contents of a flash drive. The flash drive has been formatted with the exFAT file system. You want ot read the flash drive on your computer as quickly as possible with the least amount of effort. What should you do?
635	> Do nothing. Windows 10 can natively access exFAT file systems.
636
637* While troubleshooting a Windows workstation, you find that the computer has several cross-linked clusers within the file system.
638
639	Which of the following utilities would MOST likely fix this issue?
640	> chkdsk
641
642* Which of the following refers to a situation where two files try to claim the same cluster on the hard disk?
643	> Cross-linked clusters
644
645* You have physically installed a new hard disk drive in your computer, configured the disk in the BIOS using the CMOS setup program, and partitioned the disk. You try to access the hard disk drive in Windows Explorer, but get an error message. Which utility will you most likely use to solve the problem?
646	> format
647
648* You have a hard disk that has a single primary partition and has been assigned D: as the drive letter. Which tool would you use to configure the drive to use the FAT32 file system?
649	> format
650
651* You have an existing computer running Windows 10 Enterprise. You want to configure a RAID 5 array in the computer. You install three new SATA drives and then use the RAID controller integrated into the motherboard to define a RAID 5 array using them. When you boot the computer, Windows does not show the logical RAID drive you just created. What should you do?
652	> Install the drivers for the motherboard RAID controller.
653[CHAPTER 5]
654
655[CHAPTER 6]
656* Which of the following terms refers to a network resource sharing model that uses access control lists saved on each computer?
657	> Peer-to-peer
658
659* Match the network types on the left with the descriptions on the right. Each network type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
660
661	A network in a small geographic area that typically uses wires to connect systems together.
662	> Local Area Network (LAN)
663	A small network used for connecting devices, such as a notebook computer, a wireless headset, a wireless printer, and a smartphone.
664	> Personal Area Network (PAN)
665	A network that is typically owned and managed by a city as a public utility.
666	> Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
667	A group of networks that are geographically isolated, but are connected to form a large internetwork.
668	> Wide Area Network (WAN)
669	Similar to a standard LAN, but uses radio signals instead of wires to connect systems together.
670	> Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
671	A network that covers an area as small as a few city blocks to as large as an entire city.
672	> Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
673	A set of subnets connected to each other, typically by wires, using at least one router.
674	> Local Area Network (LAN)
675
676* A group of workers in an office space communicate with each other on their smartphones and tablet devices through an ad hoc network linked using Bluetooth technology protocols.
677
678	Which of the following network types is in use?
679	> Personal Area Network (PAN)
680
681* You have a network that uses a logical bus topology. How do messages travel through the network?
682	> Messages are broadcast to all devices connected to the network.
683
684* You have a network that uses a logical ring topology. How do messages travel through the network?
685	> Messages travel from one device to the next until they reach the destination device.
686
687* You have implemented an ad hoc wireless network that doesn't employ a wireless access point. Every wireless network card can communicate directly with any other wireless network card on the network. What type of physical network topology has been implemented in this type of network?
688	> Mesh
689
690* You have been asked to implement a network infrastructure that will accommodate failed connections. Which of the following network topologies provides redundancy for a failed link?
691	> Mesh
692
693* Which of the following topologies connects each network device to a central hub?
694	> Star
695
696* What device is used to create a physical star topology?
697	> Switch
698
699* Which of the following is the best definition of a LAN?
700	> A network in a small geographic area, like in an office.
701
702* A customer is upgrading the routers and switches in their network. The signal source in these network devices is a light-emitting diode.
703
704	Which of the following network cabling options is MOST likely being used in this upgrade?
705	> Multimode fiber
706
707* Currently, the users in your company are required to use their IP addresses when connecting to other hosts. Since IP addresses are difficult to remember, you want to implement a protocol on your network that allows computers to automatically find another host's IP address using a logical name.
708
709	Which of the following protocols would be the BEST to implement?
710	> DNS
711
712* A technician determines that an older network hub that connects 24 workstations is performing poorly due to exceissive network collisions.
713
714	Which of the following network devices would be the BEST replacement?
715	> Switch
716
717* Which of the following LAN devices receives a signal on one port and forwards that signal only to the port where the destination device is connected?
718	> Switch
719
720* Which of the following best describes how a switch functions?
721	> It connects multiple cable segments or devices and forwards frames to the appropriate segment.
722
723* Which of the following hardware devices regenerates a signal out all connected ports without examining the frame or packet contents?
724	> Hub
725
726* How do switches and bridges learn where devices are located on a network?
727	> When a frame enters a port, the source MAC address is copied from the frame header.
728
729* You are the network technician for a small company. One of your responsibilities is to ensure that all new hardware is connected and functioning properly. You have several different types of connections that are used for various types of hardware. One of the types of cable available to you is an RJ45 cable.
730
731	Which of the following BEST describes where this cable would most likely be used?
732	> Voice over IP connection
733
734* Which of the following protocols carry phone calls over an IP-based network?
735	> VoIP
736
737* Which network component connects a device to the transmission media and allows it to send and receive messages?
738	> Network interface card
739
740* Which of the following statements accurately describes how a modem works? (Select TWO.)
741	> It demodulates analog data from a telephone network into digital PC data.
742	> It modulates digital data from the PC into analog data and transmits it on a telephone network.
743
744* Which of the following is a valid MAC address?
745	> C0-34-FF-15-01-8E
746
747* An 8-port switch receives a frame on port number 1. The frame is addressed to an unknown device. What will the switch do?
748	> Send the frame out ports 2-8.
749
750* You have a computer with an onboard LAN adapter. The LAN adapter has failed, and you are unable to connect the computer to the network. What should you do?
751	> Add a network card using a PCI slot.
752
753* A technician is replacing a cable mode. The cable from the cable company has an inner solid wire conductor and an outer mesh conductor separated by PVC plastic insulation.
754
755	Which of the following network cable types is being used?
756	> Coaxial cable
757
758* Which of the following are characteristics of coaxial network cable? (Select TWO.)
759	> It has a conductor made from copper in the center of the cable.
760	> It uses two concentric metallic conductors.
761
762* A technician is installing a cable modem that supplies internet connectivitiy for a home office.
763
764	Which of the following cabling types would be used to connect the cable modem to the cable wall outlet?
765	> RG6
766
767* A technician is running a network above a dropped ceiling that is also used for ventiliation. The cable must be twisted pair and must be capable of Gigable Ethernet speeds.
768
769	Which of the following cables should be used?
770	> Plenum-rated CAT-6a
771
772* You are installing networking cable in the air space between the ceiling and the roof of a building. Which type of cabling should you use?
773	> Plenum
774
775* Which kind of connector do you use to connect a modem to a standard telephone line?
776	> RJ11
777
778* Which connector is used with unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?
779	> RJ45
780
781* You have recently been called to troubleshoot network connectivity at a user's workstation. You have found that the network cable runs across high-traffic areas on the floor, causing the cable to wear through and break. You have replaced the cable with a plenum-rated and shielded twisted pair cable. You would like to minimize the problem and prevent it from happening again.
782
783	Which of the following will BEST protect the cable from further damage?
784	> Run the cable through the ceilling area instead of across the floor.
785
786* What is a major benefit STP provides that UTP does not?
787	> Greater resistance to interference
788
789* A technician connects two network switches using a twisted pair cable. Neither switch supports auto-uplinking.
790
791	Which of the following identifies the TIA wiring standard required on each end of the cable?
792	> One end must be T568A, and the other must be T568B.
793
794* You are using a crimper to attach an RJ45 connector to a Cat 6 UTP cable. You need to use the T568A standard to connect the individual wires to the connector. Which wire should be connected to pin 1?
795
796	> Green with white
797
798* A technician must press a cable connector's retaining tab to remove a faulty fiber optic network cable.
799
800	Which of the following connectors does the cable use?
801	> LC
802
803* Which of the following are advantages of using fiber optic cabling for a network, as opposed to other types of cabling? (Select TWO.)
804	> Immunity to electromagnetic interference.
805	> Greater cable distances without a repeater
806
807* Match the fiber optic cable types on the left with the appropriate characteristics on the right. Each cable type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
808
809	Data transfers through the core using more than one light rays.
810	> Multimode
811	The core diameter is around 10 microns.
812	> Single mode
813	Cable lengths can extend a great distance
814	> Single mode
815	Cable lengths are limited in distance.
816	> Multimode
817
818* Which of the following is a wired networking method most commonly used today by desktop PCs and other network devices to connect to a local area network?
819	> Ethernet
820
821* You have just signed up for a broadband home internet service that uses coaxial cable. Which connector type will you most likely use?
822	> F-type
823
824* Match the types of Ethernet connectivity devices on the left with the corresponding descriptions on the right. Each type of Ethernet connectivitiy device may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
825
826	Connects segments on the same subnet. Forwards signals to only the port connected to the destination device.
827	> Switch
828	Can be used to connect wireless clients to wired clients on the same network.
829	> Bridge
830	Connects two network segments that have different subnet addresses.
831	> Router
832	Connects segments on the same subnet. Repeats signals out to all other ports.
833	> Hub
834	Operates in full-duplex mode, meaning devices can both send and receive data at the same time.
835	> Switch
836	Operates in half-duplex mode, meaning devices can either send or receive data at any given time.
837	> Hub
838	Uses the IP addresses within a packet to move packets between networks
839	> Router
840
841* Which of the following devices allows network communications to be transmitted over existing AC power lines?
842	> Ethernet over Power
843
844* Which of the following devices can be used to distribute electrical power along with network data on twisted-pair Ethernet cabling (CAT 5 or higher)?
845	> Power over Ethernet
846
847* Your netowkr follows the 1000Base-T specifications for Gigabit Ethernet.
848
849	Which of the following is the MAXIMUM cable segment length allowed?
850	> 100 meters
851
852* Which of the following is true of a network using the 1000Base-T standard? (Select TWO.)
853	> The network uses copper UTP cables.
854	> The network operates at one gigabit per second.
855
856* A medican center wants to upgrade their network backbone to 10-Gigabit Ethernet (10 Gbps) so they can perform daily backups of large amounts of data to the secure on-site storage area network (SAN) without bogging down the network. Some of the backbone segments will have to reach between buildings that are close to 300 meters apart.
857
858	Which of the following cable types BEST supports the 10-Gigabit Ethernet at the necessary segments lengths while keeping costs as low as possible?
859	> Multimode fiber optic
860
861* Which type of fiber optic cable supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet with a maximum segment length of up to 40 km?
862	> 10GBaseER single-mode
863
864* Which of the following are valid IP addresses? (Select TWO.)
865	> 172.16.1.26
866	> 2.2.2.2
867
868* Which of the following are not valid IP addresses? (Select THREE.)
869	> 257.0.122.55
870	> 145.8.260.7
871	> 45.22.156.256
872
873* You want to implement name resolution on the Linux workstations in your company. Which protocol will you use to do this?
874	> DNS
875
876* You want to allow your users to download files from a server running the IP protocol. You want to protect access to the files by requiring user authentication to access specific-directories ont he server. Which IP protocol should you implement to provide this capability?
877	> FTP
878
879* Which of the following protocols is used by an email client to retrieve messages from an email server and gives users the option to keep mail messages on the server?
880	> IMAP
881
882* You want to use your Windows workstation to browse the websites on the ineternet. You use a broadband DSL connection to access the internet. Which network protocol must be installed on your workstation to do this?
883	> IP
884
885* Match each port number on the left with its associated protocols on the right.
886
887	Secure Shell (SSH)
888	> 22
889	Apple Filing Protocol (AFP)
890	> 548
891	HTTP over SSL (HTTPS)
892	> 443
893	Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
894	> 80
895	Server Message Block (SMB/CIFS) directly over TCP
896	> 445
897	Service Location Protocol (SLP)
898	> 427
899	Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
900	> 143
901
902* An administrator configures a server to run the TCP/IP suite protocol that allows users to download files contained in specific directories on the server and also protects access to those files by requiring user authentication.
903
904	Which of the following TCP/IP port numbers allow this protocol to work properly? (Select TWO).
905	> 20
906	> 21
907
908* To assist a user, a help desk technician is able to take advantage of a Windows proprietary network protocol that allows the technician to open a graphical interface to connect with the user's Windows computer.
909
910	Which of the following TCP/IP port numbers is the default port used by this protocol?
911	> 3389
912
913* While making an online bank transaction, a customer checks to see that the web browser is displaying a lock icon that indicates that an encrypted TCP/IP suite protocol is being used.
914
915	Which of the following TCP/IP port numbers does this protocol typically use when the browser encrypts its communications with the bank's web server?
916	> 443
917
918* A user is configuring an email client application and plans to use a standard TCP/IP suite protocol to retrieve email messages from an email server.
919
920	Which of the following TCP/IP suite protocols can be used to retrieve email messages? (Select TWO).
921	> Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
922	> Post Office Protocol (POP3)
923
924* While working on a Windows workstation, you've enabled Remote Desktop.
925
926	Which of the following ports MUST be opened in the server's firewall to allow remote clients to access the desktop?
927	> 3389
928
929* You've just installed the DNS server on a Windows server. Which port must be opened inh the server's firewall to allow clients to access the service?
930	> 53
931
932* Which protocol is used to send email messages from a mail client to a mail server?
933	> SMTP
934
935* You are a software developer, and you are creating a multimedia streaming application. Data will be streamed from your streaming server to streaming clients over IP networks. Which transport protocol should your application use to send data between the clients and the server?
936	> UDP
937
938* You have a user who takes his laptop home every day after work. When he's working in the office, the laptop must get an IP address from the DHCP server so you configure it to obtain IP and DNS information automatically. When he's working form home, the laptop must use IP and DNS information that connects with his home network.
939
940	Which IP addressing method can you use to make sure he gets a network connection at home?
941	> Alternate IP configuration
942
943* A Windows workstation is configured to receive its IP configuration information from a DHCP server on the company network.The user at the workstation reports that she cannot use email and is unable to reach the internet. Using the ipconfig command, you see that the workstation has been assigned the following special IP configuration:
944
945IP address: 168.254.0.1
946Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
947
948	What is this special IP configuration called?
949	> Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)
950	Why did the workstation recieve this type of configuration?
951	> The workstation was unable to contact the DHCP Server
952
953* Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing?
954	> 168.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254
955
956* Given that your Windows workstation has Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) implemented using default settings, which of the following TCP/IP addresses could be automatically assigned to the system should your DHCP server go down or become inaccessible?
957	> 169.254.1.26
958
959* Which TCP/IP configuration parameter identifies the router that is used to reach hosts on remote networks?
960	> Default gateway
961
962* Which of the following statements abou the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are true? (Select TWO.)
963	> A workstation must request addressing information from a DHCP server.
964	> It can deliver a DNS server address in addition to the host IP address.
965
966* You are setting up a small network in your office with one Windows server and 50 Windows workstations. You want to spend as little time as possible configuring the workstations with IP addressing information. What should you do?
967	> Install and configure the DHCP service on your server.
968
969* As the IT technician for your company, you need to ensure that IP addresses are automatically assigned to hosts while at the same time preventing the same address from being assigned twice.
970
971	Which of the following services would be BEST to use?
972	> DHCP
973
974* You are the IT technician for your company.
975
976	Which of the following mechanisms would BEST allow you to resolve a hostname into its associated IP address? (Select TWO).
977	> DNS
978	> hosts file
979
980* Nate, an employee in your organization, has started to work from home two days a week. Nate uses the same company laptop while working in the office and working at home.
981
982Nate's laptop automatically connects to the wireless network in the office, but does not automatically connect to his home wireless network. Nate would like the laptop to connect automatically at home and at work.
983
984	Which of the following would BEST allow this to happen?
985	> Configure an alternate TCP/IP configuration on the laptop's wireless adapater to use a static IP address that is compatible with the home network.
986
987* A host on your network that provides a service that requires the server to always use the same IP address. Which IP addressing method can you use to manually assign the specific IP address?
988	> Static IP addressing
989
990* While setting up a home office, a technician disables the DHCP service on the office router, but does not want to rely on link-local addressing.
991
992	Which of the following IP addressing methods should be used?
993	> Static
994
995* A technician is configuring the static TCP/IP settings on a client computer.
996
997	Which of the following configurations are needed for internet communications? (Select THREE.)
998	> DNS server address
999	> Default gateway address
1000	> IP address including a subnet mask (IPv4) or subnet prefix length (IPv6)
1001
1002* Which of the following are valid IPv6 addresses? (Select TWO.)
1003	> 6384:1319:7700:7631:446A:5511:8940:2552
1004	> 141:0:0:0:15:0:0:1
1005
1006* Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
1007	> FEC0::AB:9007
1008
1009* Which of the following correctly describes the most common format for expressing IPv6 addresses? (Select TWO.)
1010	> Hexadecimal numbers
1011	> 32 numbers, grouped using colons
1012
1013* Which of the following describes an IPv6 address? (Select TWO.)
1014	> Eight hexadecimal quartets
1015	> 128-bit address
1016
1017* Which of the following identifies the Interface ID component of an IPv6 address? (Select TWO.)
1018	> The last four quartets of an IPv6 address.
1019	> The last 64 bits of an IPv6 address.
1020
1021* Which of the following identifies the prefix component of an IPv6 address? (Select TWO.)
1022	> The first 64 bits of an IPv6 address.
1023	> The first four quartets of an IPv6 address.
1024
1025* The following is an example of an IPv6 address:
1026
1027FEC0:1319:7700:F631:446A:5511:CC40:25AB
1028
1029	Which part of the example IPv6 address is the prefix?
1030	> FEC0:1319:7700:F631
1031	Which quartet in the example IPv6 prefix is used to identify the subnet?
1032	> F631
1033	Which part of the example IPv6 address is the interface ID?
1034	> 446A:5511:CC40:25AB
1035
1036* Which of the following describes the part of the IPv6 address that identifies the subnet address?
1037	> The last quartet in the IPv6 address prefix.
1038
1039* You are configuring an ADSL connection. Which of the following will be part of the configuration? (Select TWO.)
1040	> RJ11 connectors
1041	> Filters or splitters
1042
1043* Which actions allow you to access the internet on your laptop via a cellular network?
1044	> Install a cellular USB adpater in a open poirt on the laptop.
1045
1046* Which of the following are options for connecting a computing device, such as a notebook computer or a tablet, to a cellular network? (Select FOUR.)
1047	> Use the device's Wi-Fi to connect to the network through a cellular Wi-Fi hot spot.
1048	> Use a USB cellular antennae to conect the device directly to the cellular network.
1049	> Use a USB cable to connect the device to the network through a smartphone.
1050	> Use an integrated cellular antennae to connect the device directly to the cellular network.
1051
1052* Which of the following types of internet connection services can allow you to be truly mobile while maintaining your internet connection?
1053	> Cellular
1054
1055* You are talking with a customer support technician on the telephone. The technician recommends downloading a particular driver from the internet. When you try to connect to the internet using your dial-up modem, you can't. What is the problem?
1056	> You need to hang up.
1057
1058* Which type of network medium is used by an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) adapter?
1059	> Copper telephone wire
1060
1061* Which of the following network technologies is packaged as part of a BRI plan?
1062	> ISDN
1063
1064* Which of the following are features of Basic Rate ISDN (BRI)? (Select THREE.)
1065	> One control channel
1066	> Dial-up connection
1067	> Two data Channels
1068
1069* To access the internet through the Publicly Switched Telephone Network (PSTN), what kind of connectivity device must you use?
1070	> Modem
1071
1072* A homeowner's connection to the internet is through an always-on modem that connects to existing telephone wiring and has a download speed of over 3 Mbps. The homeowner is able to make analog phone calls over the same wiring at the same time.
1073
1074	Which of the following internet connection types is being used?
1075	> DSL
1076
1077* A SOHO's connection to the inernet is through an antenna that sends and receives a microwave signal to the ISP's antenna. There can be no obstacles on the direct path between the two antennae.
1078
1079	Which of the following internet connection types is being used?
1080	> Line-of-sight wireless
1081
1082* A group of workers attend a team-building retreat at a remote cabin. They can place calls on their mobile smartphones, but the cabin has no wired phone, television, or wired internet connectivity. The workers need to access an internet webpage using their laptop computers.
1083
1084	Which of the following internet connection types might be available to the workers?
1085	> Cellular
1086
1087* A healthcare organization provides mobile clinics throughout the world and needs to transfer patients' statistical data to a central database via the internet. Which network technology should you select to ensure network connectivity for any clinic located anywhere in the world, even remote areas?
1088	> Satellite
1089
1090* You are installing a satellite connection so your home office can connect to the internet. Which of the following statements is true?
1091	> The satellite dish must be pointed in the correct direction for communicating with the satellite.
1092
1093* You are teh computer specialist in a small business. Your company server is named FS1 and has an IP address of 10.0.0.2. The hardware in your company server started to experience intermittent failures, so you transferred the shares on the server to a spare server and took the main server offline. The spare server has an IP address of 10.0.0.3. You edit the existing A record for FS1 on your company's DNS server and redirect the hostname to the spare server's IP address of 10.0.0.3.
1094
1095Afterward, most users are able to access the shares on the spare server by hostname, but several users cannot. Instead, they see an error message indicating that the FS1 server could not be found.
1096
1097	Enter the command you can run from the command prompt on these workstations that will allow them to access the shares on FS1 without performing a full restart.
1098	> ipconfig /flushdns
1099
1100* Which of the following tools allow remote server management? (Select TWO.)
1101	> SSH
1102	> Telnet
1103
1104* Which of the following utilities can you use from the command line on a Linux system to see a list of the installed network interfaces along with their current statuses and configurations?
1105	> ifconfig
1106
1107* Which utility would you use to view current connections and active sessions and ports on a computer?
1108	> netstat
1109
1110* You need to view detailed IP configuration information on a Windows workstation. In addition to the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway configuration, you need to see the network card's MAC address and the addresses of the DHCP and DNS servers the workstation is communicating with.
1111
1112	What command would you enter at the command line to see this detailed information?
1113	> ipconfig /all
1114	When you see the address of the DNS server, you realize that this information needs to be updated. Earlier in the day, you implemented a new DNS server with a new IP address. The workstation will update this information in 24 hours. What command can you enter at the command line to update the DNS server information right away?
1115	> ipconfig /flushdns
1116
1117* Match each utility on the left with its corresponding description on the right. Each utility may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
1118
1119	Resolves (looks up) the IP address of the specified hostname.
1120	> nslookup
1121	Tests connectivity between devices and shows the routers in the path between the two devices.
1122	> tracert
1123	Sends an ICMP echo request/reply packet to a remote host.
1124	> ping
1125	Displays current connections and incoming and outgoing connections
1126	> netstat
1127	A few simple replies to this request from the remote host indicates that a connection exists between sender and receiver.
1128	> ping
1129	Displays active sessions, ports, sockets, and the local routing table.	
1130	> netstat
1131	Performs a continuous connection test when used with the -t option.
1132	> ping
1133
1134* You are an IT technician for your company and would like to be able to:
1135- Establish a remote server management session.
1136- Send unencrypted (clear text) transmissions to the remote server.
1137- Manage specialized industrial and scientific devices.
1138
1139	Which of the following utilities would be the best to use to accomplish these tasks?
1140	> Telnet
1141
1142* What is the name of the utility that is (1 similar to Telnet and (2 used to establish a secure remote server management session?
1143	> SSH
1144
1145* A user reports that he can't browse to a specific website on the internet. Form his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A traceroute test shows 17 hops to the destination web server.
1146
1147	What is the most likely cause of the problem?
1148	> Incorrect DNS server address
1149
1150* A user is having problems connecting to other computers using hostnames.
1151
1152	Which of the following commands will BEST help you troubleshoot this problem?
1153	> nslookup
1154
1155* You work in an office that uses Linux and Windows servers. The network uses the IP protocol. You are sitting at a Windows workstation. An application you are using is unable to connect to a Windows server named FileSrv2.
1156
1157	Which of the following commands would work BEST to test network connectivity between your workstation and the server? (Select TWO).
1158	> ping
1159	> tracert
1160
1161* You are troubleshooting network connectivity issues on a Windows workstation. Which command would you use to view the MAC address of the network adapter?
1162	> ipconfig /all
1163
1164* Examine the following output:
11654 22 ms 21 ms 22 ms sttlwa01gr02.bb.ispxy.com [154.11.10.26]
11665 39 ms 39 ms 65 ms plalca01gr00.bb.ispxy.com [154.11.12.11]
11676 39 ms 39 ms 39 ms Rwest.plalca01gr00.bb.ispxy.com [154.11.3.14]
11687 40 ms 39 ms 46 ms svl-core-03.inet.ispxy.net [205.171.205.29]
11698 75 ms 117 ms 63 ms dia-core-01.inet.ispxy.net [205.171.142.1]
1170
1171	Which commmand produced this output?
1172	> tracert
1173
1174* Examine the following output:
1175Server: helicuplar.xct.takro.net
1176Address: 209.53.4.130
1177Name: westsim.com
1178Address: 64.78.193.84
1179
1180	Which command produced this output?
1181	> nslookup
1182
1183* You are the network administrator of a branch office of your company. Thebranch office network is part of a WAN that covers most of the United States. Users have been complaining that they are unable to access resources over the WAN at the main headquarters. You suspect that one of the routers between your office and the main headquarters is not working properly.
1184
1185	To troubleshoot the routers, which of the followin TCP/IP utilities would be BEST to use?
1186	> tracert
1187
1188* After several new computers are connected to a network device, every computer connected to the device begins to experience slow transfer speeds.
1189
1190	Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting this problem?
1191	> Determine whether the network device is a hub or a switch.
1192
1193* A laptop has a wired connection to the network and is configured with a static IP address. The link light on the NIC is lit, but the laptop can't communicate with any hosts on the local network.
1194
1195	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
1196	> The static IP address and subnet mask are configured with the wrong network address.
1197
1198* A laptop has a wired connection to the network and is configured with a static IP address. The link light on the NIC is lit, but the laptop can't communicate with any hosts on the local network.
1199
1200	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
1201	> The IP address conflicts with another host on the local network.
1202
1203* While investigating a network connectivity issue, a technician finds that the link light on a workstation is not lit, and there is no connectivity after replacing the patch cable with one that is known to be good. The wall jack is not labeled, and within the switch room, none of the cables or patch panel ports are labeled.
1204
1205	Which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use next?
1206	> Tone generator
1207
1208* While investigating a network connectivity issue, a technician finds taht the link light on a workstation is not lit, and there is no connectivity after replacing the patch cable both between the workstation and the wall jack and between the patch panel adn the switch with cables that are known to be good.
1209
1210	If the wall jack and patch panel ports are labeled correctly, which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use next?
1211	> Cable tester
1212
1213* A user tells a help desk technician that their browser is displaying a message that a site can't be reached. When asked, the user tells the technician that other users in the same office can browse to the site. The technician suspects that the web server's name is not being translated to the correct IP address. The technician asks the user to open a command prompt window.
1214
1215	Which of the following commands would confirm the technician's assumption? (Select TWO).
1216	> ping
1217	> nslookup
1218
1219* A technician located at a branch office can't communicate with a company server at the home office.
1220
1221	Which of the following commands could be used to determine where the communication is blocked?
1222	> tracert
1223
1224* You have had several employees call the help desk where you work, complaining that they are not able to reach the www.widgets.com server. To help troubleshoot this issue, you decide to run a variety of commands.
1225
1226	Which of the following commands is MOST likely to return the IP address of the desired server? (Select THREE).
1227	> nslookup www.widgets.com
1228	> tracert www.widgets.com
1229	> ping www.widgets.com
1230
1231* You are troubleshooting connectivity between your computer and the www.widgets.com server, whose IP address is 192.168.1.1.
1232
1233	Which of the following commands tests connectivity to the device as well as name resolution?
1234	> ping www.widgets.com
1235
1236* You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having a problem.
1237
1238	Which of the configuration values would you most likely need to change?
1239	> Default gateway
1240
1241* You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet, which uses the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following:
1242
1243Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection:
1244Connection-specific DNS Suffix...: mydomain.local
1245Description......................: Broadcom network adapter
1246Physical Address.................: 00-AA-BB-CC-74-EF
1247DHCP Enabled.....................: No
1248Autoconfiguration Enabled........: Yes
1249IPv4 Address.....................: 192.168.1.102(Preferred)
1250Subnet Mask......................: 255.255.0.0
1251Default Gateway..................: 192.168.1.1
1252DNS Servers......................: 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.27
1253
1254	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
1255	> Incorrect subnet mask
1256
1257* You manage a network that has multiple internal subnets. You connect a workstation to the 192.168.1.0 subnet using the default subnet mask. This workstation can communicate with some hosts on the private network, but not with other hosts. You run ipconfig /all and see the following:
1258
1259Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection:
1260Connection-specific DNS Suffix...: mydomain.local
1261Description......................: Broadcom network adapter
1262Physical Address.................: 00-AA-BB-CC-74-EF
1263DHCP Enabled.....................: No
1264Autoconfiguration Enabled........: Yes
1265IPv4 Address.....................: 192.168.1.102(Preferred)
1266Subnet Mask......................: 255.255.0.0
1267Default Gateway..................: 192.168.2.1
1268DNS Servers......................: 192.168.1.20
1269
1270	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
1271	> Incorrect default gateway
1272
1273* An end user claims they are unable to connect to the internet and has called the company's help desk for a solution. Having been assigned to this issue, you decide to first test whether or not TCP/IP is working correctly on the local computer.
1274
1275	Which of the following is the BEST command to use for this test?
1276	> ping 127.0.0.1
1277[CHAPTER 6]
1278
1279[CHAPTER 7]
1280* Which wireless standard can stream data at a rate of up to 54 Mbps using a frequency of 5 GHz?
1281	> 802.11a
1282
1283* Which of the following wireless networking standards uses a frequency of 5 GHz and supports trasmission speeds up to 1.3 Gbps?
1284	> 802.11ac
1285
1286* The 802.11ac wireless networking standard provides increased bandwidth and communication speeds by using which of the following technologies? (Select TWO).
1287	> MU-MIMO to allow multiple users to use the same channel.
1288	> Channel bonding to combine more channels in the 5 GHz band to allow for up to 160-MHz-wide channels.
1289
1290* Which IEEE wireless standards specify transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps? (Select TWO.)
1291	> 802.11a
1292	> 802.11g
1293
1294* Which data transmission rate is defined by the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard?
1295	> 11 Mbps
1296
1297* Which of the following are characteristics of the 802.11g wireless standard? (Select THREE.)
1298	> Backwards compatible with 802.11b devices
1299	> Operates in the 2.4 GHz range
1300	> Maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps
1301
1302* You are designing a wireless network for a client. Your client needs the network to support a data rate of at least 150 Mbps. In addition, the client already has a wireless telephone system installed that operates 2.4 GHz. Which 802.11 standard will work best in this situation?
1303	> 802.11n
1304
1305* You have been contacted by OsCorp to recommend a wireless Internet solution. The wireless strategy must support a trasnsmission range of 150 feet, use a frequency range of 2.4 GHz, and provide the highest possible transmission speeds. Which of the following wireless solutions would you recommend?
1306	> 802.11n
1307
1308* Which type of configuration would you use if you wanted to deploy 802.11n technology to communicate directly between two computers using a wireless connection?
1309	> Ad hoc
1310
1311* One of your customers wants to configure a small network in his home. The home has three floors, and there are computers on each floor. This customer needs to share files between computers, print to a centrally located printer, and have access to the internet.
1312
1313	Which of the following print solutions would BEST meet this client's needs?
1314	> Configure a Wi-Fi instrastructure network.
1315
1316* A customer is experiencing a sporadic interruption of their Wi-Fi network in one area of their building. A technician investigates an discovers signal interference caused by a microwave oven. The customer approves replacing the wireless access point that covers the area, but asks that the wireless speed also be increased.
1317
1318	Which of the following Wi-Fi standards should the replacement device support to BEST fulfill teh customer's needs?
1319	> 802.11ac
1320
1321* While configuring a wireless access point device, a technician is presented with several security mode options.
1322
1323	Which of the following options will provide the most secure access?
1324	> WPA2 and AES
1325
1326* You have been asked to help a small office with a limited budget set up and configure a Windows network. There are only five computers in this office. In addition to the ability to share network resources, security is a top priority.
1327
1328	Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
1329	> Install a WorkGroup to allow each device to control what is shared and with whom.
1330
1331* A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router.
1332
1333	Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should do to secure the router?
1334	> Change the router's default password
1335
1336* A technician is installing a SOHO router at an after-school community center. The customer would like to keep children from accessing inappropriate sites while browsing the web.
1337
1338	Which of the following actions would help accomplish this goal?
1339	> Enable content filtering
1340
1341* A technician receives notification from a SOHO router manufacturer of a specific vulnerability that allows attackers to exploit SNMP traps to take over the router. The technician verifies the settings outlined in the notification.
1342
1343	Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT?
1344	> Check for and apply firmware updates.
1345
1346* A technician is installing a network-enabled smart home control system in a SOHO.
1347
1348	To access the system from the internet, which of the following configurations is MOST likely required on the SOHO router?
1349	> Port forwarding
1350
1351* A SOHO customer finds that their VoIP conversations frequently break up and being unintelligible. This happens most often when one person in the office streams video from the internet.
1352
1353	Which of the following configuration changes on the SOHO router is MOST likely to improve VoIP performance?
1354	> Change QoS settings to give VoIP traffic more priority.
1355
1356* A technician is replacing a SOHO router and has configured DHCP to assign private IP addresses to hosts on the local network. These hosts can communicate with each other, but users can't browse the internet.
1357
1358	Which of the following changes to the SOHO router is MOST likely to restore internet connectivity?
1359	> Configure the SOHO router for NAT.
1360
1361* You are an IT technician for your company. Your boss has asked you to set up and configure a wireless network to service all of the conference rooms.
1362
1363	Which of the following features lets you allow or reject client connections by hardware address?
1364	> MAC address filtering
1365
1366* A technician is tasked with preparing a conference room so that at least 20 guests will be able to wirelessly connect laptop computers to the company network.
1367
1368	Which of the following network devices would be the BEST choice for this connectivity?
1369	> Access point
1370
1371* A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router in a home office. The customer wants to secure the wireless network so only a smartphone, tablet, and laptop can connect.
1372
1373	Which of the following router settings should the technician change?
1374	> Enable MAC filtering
1375
1376* Which of the following is used on a wireless network to identify the network name?
1377	> SSID
1378
1379* Which of the following locations will contribute the greatest amount of interference for a wireless access point? (Select TWO.)
1380	> Near backup generators
1381	> Near cordless phones
1382
1383* Which of the following is true when the DHCP setting is disabled in a wireless network?
1384	> Wireless clients must use a static IP address within the correct IP address range to connect to the network.
1385
1386* Portable devices have a software-controlled switch that disables all wireless functionality.
1387
1388	What is the name of this software-controlled switch?
1389	> airplane mode
1390
1391* Which of the following are antenna types that are commonly used in wireless networks? (Select TWO).
1392	> Directional antenna
1393	> Omnidirectional antenna
1394
1395* You are troubleshooting a client connectivity problem on an Ethernet network. The client system has intermittent connectivity to the network. You discover that the unshielded twisted pair patch cable runs 75 feet from the wall outlet and then passes through the ceiling and over several florescent light fixtures before reaching the client system.
1396
1397	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity problem?
1398	> EMI interference.
1399
1400* A user on your network has been moved to another office down the hall. After the move, she calls you to complain that she has only occasional network access through her wireless connection.
1401
1402	Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
1403	> The client system has moved too far away from the access point.
1404
1405* A user calls to report that she is experiencing intermittent problems while accessing the wireless network from her laptop computer. While talking to her, you discover that she is trying to work from teh break room two floors above the floor where she normally works.
1406
1407	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her connectivity problem?
1408	> The user is out of the effective range of the wireless access point on her floor.
1409
1410* A user calls to report that she is experiencing intermittent problems while accessing the wireless network from her laptop computer. She can access the network from her usual office, but today, she is trying to access the wireless network from a conference room, which is across the hall and next to the elevator.
1411
1412	Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her connectivity problem?
1413	> Interfernce is affecting the wireless signal.
1414[CHAPTER 7]